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CBSE Class 10 Science Sample Paper for 2023-24 Exam with Answers

CBSE Class 10 Science Sample Papers are helpful, especially when students have to appear for the Class 10 board exams. It helps students in facing the exam more confidently. Even after revising all the chapters of Science, students need to solve CBSE Sample Paper Class 10 to score high marks in Science. Solving CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Science 2023-24 gives a brief idea of question paper pattern, marking scheme and types of questions asked in the exam. So, to help in exam preparation, we have provided CBSE Science Sample Papers for Class 10 in PDF format.

CBSE Sample Paper for Class 10 Science 2023-24 Exam

CBSE Class 10 Science Sample Paper 2023-24 has been released on the official CBSE site, along with the marking scheme and solutions. Click on the link below to download the PDFs for free. Solve these papers and compare the answer with the provided solution PDF. Solving the CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Science will help students analyse their mistakes and better represent their answers in the board exam. They can also download the sample mock paper of Maths created by BYJU’S for the final exam.

For the year 2022-23, the sample papers can be accessed here.

Students can also go through the sample papers for 2022 terms 1 and 2 from the table below.

Watch the below video for CBSE Class 10 Sample Paper Pattern Analysis 2021-2022 Term 2 and Term 1 Exam

science term 2 paper pattern class 10

CBSE Class 10 Science Sample Paper 2021 – Download PDF

The below sample paper has been created based on the latest 2021 Class 10 Science marking scheme and the 2021 official model paper format. Students aiming to score well in the board exams must solve this CBSE Science Sample Paper Class 10.

  • CBSE Class 10 Science Sample Paper 2021 PDF – Set 1

Solved CBSE Class 10 Science Sample Papers – Download PDF (based on old pattern)

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Science are prepared by the experts analysing the past years’ CBSE Question Papers for Class 10 Science and previous years’ exam trends. These sample papers cover the CBSE Class 10 Syllabus of Science and important questions that are expected to be asked in the exam. Also, it includes some questions from the previous year’s CBSE Question Papers for Class 10 Science which are often repeated. So, students must start their exam preparation with these CBSE Science Sample Paper Class 10 to score 100 percent marks in Science.

In these CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Science, we have covered questions from all three sections, i.e. Physics, Chemistry and Biology. If students find problems while solving these CBSE Science Sample Paper Class 10, they can refer to the solutions we have provided above. If they are still unable to understand, they should refer to the NCERT Class 10 Science Book . We have also provided some more papers without solutions for students’ practice.

The CBSE Class 10 Sample Papers will help students to strengthen their weak sections by practising more. They must practise CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Science to better understand exam difficulty levels. By doing so, they can easily tackle the tough questions asked in the CBSE Class 10 Science Question Paper. Also, they will learn time management and could be able to complete the entire CBSE Class 10 Science Question Paper on time.

To know How to Make Use of Mind Maps for the Class 10 Science Exam, watch the below video

science term 2 paper pattern class 10

CBSE Class 10 Science Sample Papers for SA1 and SA2

We have also provided the SA1 and SA2 Science CBSE sample papers to prepare students for the board exams. This will help them score marks in internal exams. Also, it will make them prepare for the board exams. So, access the CBSE Class 10 Science Sample Paper for SA1 and SA2 from the links below.

Official CBSE Class 10 Science Sample Papers – 2021, 2020, 2019, 2018, 2017 and 2016

Every year CBSE provides an official CBSE Class 10 Science Question Paper before the conduction of board exams. Also, it releases the answer pdf along with the marking scheme through which students get an idea of how to express answers in a better way during exams. So, download these official year-wise CBSE Science Sample Papers of Class 10 from the table below and practise them.

After solving these papers, students must go through the solution pdf and evaluate their exam performance. Doing so will help students to understand how marks are awarded for each step in the exam.

Importance of Solving the CBSE Class 10 Science Sample Papers

There are various advantages to solving the CBSE sample papers . Some of them are listed below:

  • Students get the confidence to face the actual exam boldly.
  • They get well-versed in the exam pattern and marking scheme.
  • By solving different types of question papers, students get enough practice that they can tackle any type of problem during the exam.
  • They can finish the complete paper on time.
  • By going through the answers and marking scheme provided above on the page, students get to know the answer writing skill from an exam perspective.
  • They will again recall all the concepts of Science by practising sample papers.

We hope students have found this information on the ‘CBSE Class 10 Science Sample Paper’ useful for their exam preparation. Keep learning and stay tuned for further updates on CBSE Exam. Download BYJU’S App and subscribe to the YouTube channel to watch interactive maths and science videos.

Frequently Asked Questions on CBSE Class 10 Science Sample Papers

Are there science sample qps available for sa1 and sa2 separately.

Yes, CBSE Class 10 (separate SA1 and SA2) Sample QPs with marking scheme (solutions).

What is the use of solving Class 10 Science Sample QPs?

Students should evaluate themselves after solving the Sample QPs and understand their strengths and weaknesses. Improve their weak points by practising more of such questions.

How to score high marks in the Class 10 Science Board exam?

Students should 1. Cover all chapters under the syllabus 2. Practise Sample QPs with a marking scheme 3. Revise continuously 4. Understand concepts and try to approach questions with conceptual knowledge.

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Class-10 Science Term-2 Exam Pattern and Latest CBSE Sample Paper (2021-22)

Dear Students, CBSE has released the official sample paper for Term-2 examination of class-10 and class-12 for all the subjects on its official site ( https://cbseacademic.nic.in/ ) on 14.01.2022. This post contains the details on the latest Class-10 Science Term-2 Exam Pattern and also the latest CBSE sample paper for term-2 class-10 Science.

As per previous CBSE circulars the term-2 examination will be comprising of subjective type questions. The new sample paper released by CBSE has the detailed examination pattern or the blueprint for the upcoming examination. The syllabus for the term-2 examinations was released by CBSE previously and it remains unchanged.

Class-10 Science Term-2 Exam Pattern

  • The question paper is of 40 marks and consists of 15 questions .
  • The entire question paper is divided into a total of 3 sections .
  • Section–A has a total of 7 questions of 2 marks each
  • Section–B has a total of 6 questions of 3 marks each
  • Section–C has a total of 2 Case Based questions of 4 marks each.
  • There are 7 questions out of the 15 questions with internal choice.

science term 2 paper pattern class 10

Latest Term-2 Science Sample Paper for Class-10

Marking scheme for term-2 science sample paper for class-10, share this:.

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  • CBSE Class 10 Science Term 2 Question Paper 2022 with Solution
  • Previous Year Question Paper

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CBSE Class 10 Science Term 2 Question Paper 2022|Download Free PDF with Solution

Class 10 Science   is a fundamental subject in the CBSE Syllabus . This Class 10 Science Question Paper covers all the fundamental chapters that develop the conceptual foundation of the students. They study these chapters and learn the fundamental concepts well and prepare for the upcoming board exam.

To prepare for the board exam, it is ideal to practising solving the CBSE Class 10 Science Question Paper 2022. The experts of Vedantu have designed the solutions for the previous year’s Science question paper following the CBSE guidelines.

Access CBSE Class 10 Science Question Paper with Solution - Term 2

1. (a) Write the molecular formula of the following carbon compounds: 

(i) Methane 

(ii) Propane 

(a) (i) Methane: $C{{H}_{4}}$ 

      (ii) Propane: ${{C}_{3}}{{H}_{8}}$

(b) Carbon compounds have low melting and boiling points. Why?  (2 Marks )

Ans: Carbon compounds usually have low melting points and boiling points because they are covalent in nature.

2. The electrons in the atoms of two elements X and Y are distributed in three shells having 1 and 7 electrons respectively in their outermost shells. 

(a) Write the group numbers of these elements in the Modern Periodic Table. 

Ans: The group number for element X is 1 and the group number for element Y is 17.

(b) Write the molecular formula of the compound formed when X and Y combine with each other. 

Ans: The molecular formula of the compound formed when X and Y combine with each other is XY. We know that the 1st element is hydrogen and the 17th element is chlorine, sothe compound formed by XY is HCL.

(c) Which of the two is electropositive?  (2 Marks) 

Ans: Element X is an electropositive element.

3. (a) Which of the following flowers will have a higher possibility of self-pollination? 

Mustard, Papaya, Watermelon, Hibiscus 

Ans: a) Mustard will undergo self-pollination in the same process.

(b) List the two reproductive parts of a bisexual flower.   (2 Marks)

Ans: The two reproductive parts of bisexual flower are: Stamen (male part) .It consists of anther and filament.The  female part isthmus pistol .The pistol has 3 parts stigma ,style and ovary.

4. Which one of the two multicellular organisms Spirogyra and Planaria reproduces by regeneration and why? Give an example of any other organism which can also reproduce by the same process.

Ans: Some simple multicellular organisms like Planaria can be cut into pieces, and each piece can regenerate into a complete organism. Some complex multicellular organisms also undergo regeneration but not to reproduce. They can only regenerate parts like eyes and limbs.

5. (a) What is variation? List two main reasons that may lead to variation in a population.  (2 Marks)

Ans: Any difference between cells, individual organisms, or groups of organisms of any species caused either by genetic differences. 

The two main reasons that may lead to variation in a population are:

Variations occur as a result of recombination and mutation.

Variations enable organisms to adapt to environmental conditions.

(b) (i) In a cross between violet flowered plants and white flowered plants, state the characteristics of the plants obtained in the F2 progeny. 

Ans: In a cross between plants with violet flowers and plants with white flowers the offspring of F1 generation all had violet flowers.   As we know that violet flower is dominant and the white flower is recessive so in F1 generation only violet flowers can be seen but when we cross the two of springs of the F1 generation then the new of spring which is formed in F2 generation will be of both violet and white colours.

(ii) If the plants of F1 progeny are self-pollinated, then what would be observed in the plants of F2 progeny? 

Ans: If plants of F1 progeny are self-pollinated then violet flowered plants and white flowered plants will have obtained in F2 progeny in ratio 3:1.

(iii) If 100 plants are produced in F2 progeny, then how many plants will show the recessive trait?  ( 2 Marks)

Ans: If 100 plants are obtained in F2 progeny then 25 plants will show the recessive trait. It means that input generation out of hundred 25 plants would the of white colour.

6. (a) (i) Name and state the rule to determine the direction of force experienced by a current carrying straight conductor placed in a uniform magnetic field which is perpendicular to it. 

Ans: Fleming’s Left-Hand rule gives the direction of force experienced by a current-carrying straight conductor placed in a magnetic field which is perpendicular to it. Fleming's Right-Hand rule gives the direction of current induced in a coil due to its rotation in a magnetic field.

(ii) An alpha particle while passing through a magnetic field gets projected towards north. In which direction will an electron  project when it passes through the same magnetic field? (2 Marks)

Ans: Here the alpha particle projected towards the north i.e. current is towards the north (middle finger). Particles deflect towards east i.e. direction of force is towards the east (thumb). So the direction of a magnetic field will be in the upward direction (forefinger).

(b) (i) What is a solenoid? 

Ans: A solenoid is a coil of wire tied across a piston that is made of iron, in the form of a corkscrew. According to the laws of electromagnetism, when an electric current passes via the wire a magnetic field is generated.

(ii) Draw the pattern of magnetic field lines of the magnetic field produced by a solenoid through which a steady current flows. (2 Marks)

magnetic field lines of the magnetic field produced

Ans: A solenoid acts as a magnet when current passes through it as it has two runs and from the positive side the electric field lines are generated and on the other side they emerge.  so they form an electric field around the solenoid.

7. (a) What is ozone? How is it formed in the upper layers of the Earth's atmosphere? How does ozone affect our ecosystem? (2 Marks) 

Ans: Ozone is a molecule containing three atoms of oxygen ${{O}_{3}}$ a highly poisonous gas present in the upper layer of the atmosphere. 

Formation of Ozone: The UV radiations split molecular oxygen ${{O}_{2}}$ apart into free oxygen atoms O + O. These atoms then combine with molecular oxygen to form ozone. ${{O}_{2}}$ → O + O O + O 2 → ${{O}_{3}}$     

Effect: Ozone layer shields the surface of the earth from damaging UV radiations of the sun.

 OR 

(b) (i) List two human-made ecosystems. (1 Marks)

Ans: The two human-made ecosystems are:

i) Gardens 

(ii) "we do not clean the pond in the same manner as we do in an statement

aquarium. " give reason to justify this statement. 

Ans: Ponds and lakes are natural habitats. They contain various decomposers that act as cleansing agents. In contrast, the aquarium is an artificial habitat. No such decomposers are present in it. Hence, it needs to be cleaned .

SECTION B 

8. (a) List two advantages of adopting the atomic number of an element as the basis of classification of elements in the Modern Periodic Table.

Ans: In Modern periodic table noble gases in a separate group named as group-18. In this table transition elements are placed in separate blocks.

(b) Write the electronic configurations of the elements X (atomic number 13) and Y (atomic number 20). (3 Marks)

Ans: The electronic configurations of the elements X (atomic number 13) and Y (atomic number 20) are:

Y - 2,8,8,2

9. (a) Draw two different possible structures of a saturated hydrocarbon having four carbon atoms in its molecule. What are these two structures of the hydrocarbon having the same molecular formula called? Write the molecular formula and the common name of this compound. Also write the molecular formula of its alkyne.                                        (3 Marks)

structures of a saturated hydrocarbon

ii) They are called isomers

iii) molecular formula

a) $C{{H}_{4}}$ 

b) ${{C}_{2}}{{H}_{6}}$ 

Common name & alkyne formula

a) methane, $C{{H}_{2}}$

b) ethane, ${{C}_{2}}{{H}_{4}}$

(b) (i) Write the molecular formula of benzene and draw its structure. 

Ans: Molecular formula of benzene is ${{C}_{6}}{{H}_{6}}$.

benzene and draw its structure.

(ii) Write the number of single and double covalent bonds present in a molecule of benzene. 

Ans: ${{C}_{6}}{{H}_{6}}$  has c-c single and double bonds with 9 single bonds and 3 double bonds.

(iii) Which compounds are called alkynes?  (3 Marks)

Ans: Compound have one or more carbon-carbon triple bonds.

10. (a) Mention one function each of the following organs in human male 

reproductive system:

(i) Testis 

(ii) Scrotum 

(iii) Vas deferens 

(iv) Prostate gland 

i) To produce sperm and to control secondary sexual character in male.Testis  not only produces sperm  but also produces the male androgen hormone which is essential for the development of male. 

ii) lt acts as a bag to hold the testis and it maintains a cooler temperature for sperm production.(2-2.5°) lower than the body temperature.

iii) It is a conducting tube which moves sperm out of the testis. After the vas deferens, it goes into the ejaculatory duct. 

iv) prostate gland provides nourishment and mobility to sperms.

(b) Name the type of germ cell which (i) is motile, and (ii) stores food.  (3 Marks)

i) The male gamete is the motile germ cell that is Sperm

ii) The female gamete is the germ cell that contains the stored food that is Ovum.

11. (a) Three resistors R 1 , R 2 and R 3 are connected in parallel and the combination is connected to a battery, an ammeter, a voltmeter and a key. Draw a suitable circuit diagram to show the arrangement of these circuit components along with the direction of current flowing.

Three resistors R1, R2 and R3 are connected in parallel

(b) Calculate the equivalent resistance of the following network:

Three resistors R1, R2 and R3 are connected in parallel

12. (a) (i) Define Electric Power and write its SI unit. (2 Marks)

Ans: Electric power is the rate at which electrical energy is transferred by an electric circuit. The SI unit of power is the watt, one joule per second.

(ii) Two bulbs rated 100 W; 220 V and 60 W; 220 V are connected in parallel to an electric main of 220 V. Find the current drawn by the bulbs from the mains.                                 (2 Marks)

(b) (i) state joule's law of heating. Express it mathematically when an appliance of resistance R is connected to a source of voltage V and the current I flow through the appliance for a time t. 

Ans: Joule’s law of heating states that the power of heating generated by an electrical conductor is proportional to the product of its resistance and the square of the electric current passing through the conductor. It Express mathematically as: ${{I}^{2}}RT$

(ii) A 5-ohm resistor is connected across a battery of 6 volts. Calculate the energy that dissipates as heat in 10 s. (3 Marks)

Ans: Using Ohm's law

$I=\frac{V}{R}$ 

$I=\frac{6}{5}$

$=1.2$Ampere

Heat produced-${{I}^{2}}RT$  

$\Rightarrow 1.2\times 1.2\times 5\times 10$ 

$=72$ joules 

13. (a) Name the group of organisms which form in the first trophic level of all food chains. Why are they called so?

Ans: The group of organisms which form in the first trophic level are producers. 

They called producers because they make their own food . 

(b) Why are human beings most adversely affected by biomagnification? 

Ans: Human beings occupy the top place of most trophic level and we know that concentration of harmful chemicals increase as we go above the trophic level. Therefore, human beings are most adversely affected by biological magnification.

(c) State one ill-effect of the absence of decomposers from a natural ecosystem.  (3 Marks)

Ans: In the absence of decomposers recycling of material in the biosphere will not take place which would lead to the accumulation of dead plants and animals in the environment .

                                                     SECTION C 

This section has 2 case-based questions (14 and 15). Each case is followed by 3 sub-questions (a), (b) and (c). Parts (a) and (b) are compulsory. However, an internal choice has been provided in Part (c).

14. The mechanism by which the sex of an individual is determined is called sex-determination. In human beings, sex of a newborn is genetically determined, whereas in some others it is not. There are 46 (23 pairs) chromosomes in human beings. Out of these, 44 (22 pairs) control the body characters and 2 (one pair) are known as sex chromosomes. The sex chromosomes are of two types X chromosome and Y chromosome. At the time of fertilisation, depending upon which type of male gamete fuses with the female gamete, the sex of the newborn child is decided.

(a) Why is a pair of sex chromosomes in human beings called a mismatched pair in terms of type and size?  (2 Marks)

Ans: A pair sex chromosome can have two same types of chromosomes (homogamety) or two different types of chromosomes (heterogamety). Humans show male heterogamety, meaning they have two mismatched chromosomes as a pair. The other 22 pairs of chromosomes are the same for all, male and female.

(b) Out of male or female, which of them has a perfect pair of sex chromosomes? In case of a perfect pair, will the gametes produced be of the same kind or of a different kind? 

Ans: Girls only. Humans have 23 pairs of chromosomes out of which 22 pairs of chromosomes are called autosomal chromosomes. In the cell nucleus of human beings, there are 46 chromosomes in total (i.e.) 23 pairs of chromosomes.

(c) (i) Name two animals whose sex is not genetically determined. Explain the process of their sex determination. 

Ans: Examples of organisms in which sex is not genetically determined are crocodiles, alligators, turtles, tuatara et cetera.

In these organisms, sex is determined by environmental factors. For example, in crocodiles, if the egg is incubated at around 30 °C, it leads to the development of the female whereas if the egg is incubated at around 34 °C, it results in the development of the male.

(ii) With the help of a flowchart only, show how sex is genetically determined in human beings. 

sex is genetically determined in human beings.

Ans: Humans have 46 chromosomes present in pairs. In male there are 22 autosomes and one pair is sex chromosome XY .In females there are 22 autosomes and one pair is sex chromosome XX. So sex of a human baby is determined by male , not by the female. 

15. A student fixes a sheet of white paper on a drawing board using some adhesive materials. She places a bar magnet in the centre of it and sprinkles some iron filings uniformly around the bar magnet using a  salt-sprinkler. On tapping the board gently, she observes that the iron filings have arranged themselves in a particular pattern.

(a) Draw a diagram to show this pattern of iron filings.   (1 Marks)

pattern of iron filing

(b) Draw the magnetic field lines of a bar magnet showing the poles of the bar magnet as well as the direction of the magnetic field lines.   (1 Marks)

poles of the bar magnet as well as the direction of the magnetic field lines

Ans: The magnetic field arise from the north pole and emerges into the South Pole of the magnet. 

(c) (i) How is the direction of the magnetic field at a point determined using the field lines? Why do two magnetic field lines not cross each other?  (2 Marks)

Ans: The direction of a magnetic field at a point is determined by placing a small compass needle. The N - pole of the compass indicates the direction of the magnetic field at that point.

Two magnetic field lines do not cross each other because there will be two directions of the field at the same point.

(ii) How are the magnetic field lines of a bar magnet drawn using a small compass needle? Draw one magnetic field line each on both sides of the magnet.

Ans: If you place a compass near the north pole of a magnet, the north pole of the compass needle will be repelled and point away from the magnet. Thus, the magnetic field lines point away from the north pole of a magnet and toward its south pole .

poles of the bar magnet as well as the direction of the magnetic field lines

Importance of CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 10 Science

Class 10 Science is an important subject for engineering and medical aspirants. This subject also holds the key to a good score in the CBSE Board exam. Hence it is a crucial subject to prepare and score well.

CBSE Class 10 Science Syllabus covers the fundamental chapters based on Physics, Chemistry, and Biology. The chapters are chosen following a pattern to develop a conceptual foundation among the students. They will find it easier to understand the chapters after what they studied in the previous classes.

These chapters are included to ensure a strong base of fundamental principles is developed within the students so that they can find studying advanced chapters in the higher classes easier to comprehend.

Hence, solving the previous year’s CBSE Class 10 Science Term 2 paper is important. The questions from the important chapters are covered in this paper. Students will use this exam paper as a reference to practise answering science questions.

By referring to the solutions, they can figure out which chapter to focus more and make their preparation better.

Benefits of CBSE Class 10 Science Question Paper 2022 with Answers

The exclusive benefits of solving the CBSE Class 10 Science Term 2 2022 question paper with solution are:

Get to know your preparation level using this 2022 Term 2 paper as an evaluation tool. Check your answers and find out which chapters need more attention.

Find out how the experts have formulated the answers by following the CBSE guidelines. Follow the answering format given in the solutions to sharpen your answering skills.

Practising science questions will also make you more efficient in saving time and scoring more in the board exam.

Get to know the questions asked from the fundamental chapters of CBSE Class 10 Science. Prepare those chapters by learning the marking scheme by solving these papers.

Develop your strategy to answer the CBSE Science exam paper and learn how to use your time to score better.

Download Class 10 Science Board Question Paper 2022 with Solutions Free PDF

Perform the CBSE Class 10 Science Question Paper 2022 PDF download and complete your study material for CBSE Class 10 Science. Prepare the chapters well and practise solving this question paper. Enjoy the benefits mentioned above and make your preparation stronger for this subject. 

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FAQs on CBSE Class 10 Science Term 2 Question Paper 2022 with Solution

1. What is the reason for following CBSE Class 10 Science syllabus?

By following the CBSE Class 10 Science syllabus, you can easily understand the score weightage of the chapters included. In this way, you can divide your preparation time more efficiently.

2. Does solving CBSE Class 10 Science Board Exam papers make you better?

You can use the previous year’s board exam paper for Class 10 Science as an evaluation tool. You can use it to find out your preparation level and can focus on specific chapters more.

3. Why should you follow the solutions framed by Vedantu experts in the Class 10 Science 2022 Question Paper?

Following the answering format of the experts will make you better at answering fundamental science questions in the board exam. You will be able to score more.

4. Is the CBSE Class 10 Science 2022 Term 1 exam paper and solution available for free?

Yes. You can download the previous year’s question paper and solutions for free at Vedantu.

CBSE Term 2 Exam 2022: Class 10 science paper ends; Check analysis, student's review

CBSE 10th term 2 science exam 2022 had concluded at 12:30 pm. Know exam analysis, answer key, and more details here.

CBSE Class 10th Syllabus

Download the CBSE 10th syllabus 2023-24 ebook to prepare better for the exam.

CBSE 10th Science Exam 2022 Live Updates

Shamshad Ali | May 10, 2022 | 10:24 PM IST

NEW DELHI: Central Board of Secondary Education (CBSE) has conducted CBSE Class 10 Science exam 2022 today. The CBSE term 2 exam 2022 has been concluded at 12:30 pm. The CBSE board term 2 exams are being held at various exam centres located around the country and abroad. Register here for CBSE Class 10 Term 2 exam study material, free sample papers, preparation tips and more updates.

New:  CBSE Class 10 Admit Card Released

Latest: CBSE Class 10th: sample papers | CBSE 10th date sheet pdf link

Don't Miss:  JEE Main & NEET 2026: Narayana Scholarship Test Preparation Kit for Class 10

The CBSE Class 10 Science test 2022 term 2 was held for two hours. Additional 15 minutes were given for reading the question paper . The exam will be administered using pen and paper.

Students must keep their admit card and school identification on them at all times. Failure to do so could result in expulsion from the test room. Students should also bring a bottle of water and some hand sanitiser to the exam. All Covid-related rules must be followed at all times.

CBSE Term 2 exam 2022 - Highlights

Board name - Central Board of Secondary Education

Exam name - CBSE Board 10th term 2 exam 2022

Subject name - CBSE 10th Science

CBSE official website - cbse.gov.in

CBSE 10th Science exam 2022 timings

Entry at exam hall start timing - 10:00 am

Question paper distribution - 10:15 am

Exam start - 10:30 am

Exam ends - 12:30 pm

Follow us for the latest education news on colleges and universities , admission, courses, exams , research, education policies, study abroad and more..

To get in touch, write to us at [email protected] .

CBSE 10th Science exam 2022 term 2 has been concluded at 12:30 pm. Know the CBSE exam analysis, answer key and upcoming CBSE exam date 2022 here.

May 10, 2022 | 10:24 PM IST

Cbse class 10 science exam: question out of syllabus, says student.

@cbseindia29 @dpradhanbjp @EduMinOfIndia QN 4 of SET 2, 31/3/2 science paper, cbse class 10 term 2 exam is regarding element of atomic no 24,is out of syllabus as the prescribed syllabus is upto 20atomic no. Noticed in only above set. In all other sets below 20atomic no asked. pic.twitter.com/Wn0UBwq8It — Ashish Arya (@Ashishkendua) May 10, 2022

May 10, 2022 | 06:13 PM IST

Cbse term 2 upcoming exam date.

CBSE Class 10 term 2 next paper will be held on May 12, 2022 for Urdu Course-A, Tamil, Telugu, Marathi , Gujarati, Manipuri, Urdu Course-B. While CBSE 12th exam will be conducted on May 11, 2022 for Punjabi, Bengali, Tamil, Telugu, Sidhi, Marathi, Gujarati, Manipuri, Malayalam, Odia, Assamese, Kannada, Arabic, Tibetan, French, German, Rusian, Persian, Nepali, Limboo, Lepcha, Telugu (Telangana), Bodo, Tangkhul, Japanese, Bhutia, Spanish, Kashmiri, Mizo.

May 10, 2022 | 05:50 PM IST

Cbse 10th science paper analysis.

Section A included Chemistry and Biology questions. It also included some Physics questions which were also quiet common and easy to solve. Section B included Chemistry and Physics questions along with some Biology questions which were a little lengthy as some structural diagrams were also asked. Section C is a section of case study based questions where students thinking process along with the conceptual process can be tested, stated a detailed CBSE science paper analysis prepared by MS Rajashree A.Natu, TGT science teacher at Podar International School, CBSE, Kalyan. In all three paper sets, it was seen that Set 3 physics part was comparatively tougher than other two sets of paper. It was finally found that all the three sets were having average questions which would help students to gain marks to their best. The paper overall was easy, she added. 

May 10, 2022 | 05:17 PM IST

Cbse term 2 10th urdu a sample paper.

science term 2 paper pattern class 10

May 10, 2022 | 05:00 PM IST

Cbse syllabus 2022 for social science, may 10, 2022 | 04:34 pm ist, cbse class 10 term 2 science.

“The science paper was on a moderate to difficult scale. The Biology questions were application-based and in-depth knowledge was required to solve them. Physics and chemistry questions were concept-based. While the question paper was as per the syllabus, around 30 to 40% of questions were indirect and tricky. Set 2 was difficult as compared to the other two sets", says Renu Tewari, Vidyagyan School, Bulandshahr.

May 10, 2022 | 04:00 PM IST

In other news: cgbse 10th, 12th result date announced.

CG board has announced Class 10, 12 result date. The CG Class 12 will be released on May 12 and Class 10 on May 14, 2022, reported Indian Express . Class 10, 12 results will be released on www.cgbse.nic.in. 

May 10, 2022 | 03:45 PM IST

Cbse term 2 class 10 exam date 2022 - passing marks.

Students will have to score at least 13 marks out of 40 to pass the exam. They must obtain 33% marks in the theory and 33% marks in the practical separately in addition to 33% marks in aggregate, in order to pass in that subject. Read more...

May 10, 2022 | 03:24 PM IST

Cbse term 2 exam: science paper was easy and doable, says student.

Overall the paper was easy. The questions were straight forward and few of them were direct from the NCERT. Questions were mostly similar to that of the preboards just the values had been made simpler. Enough written practice was done in the preboards so time could be managed easily, says Harshit, 10th class student, Mount Abu Public School, Rohini. 

May 10, 2022 | 03:15 PM IST

Cbse exam analysis 2022.

The paper was easy. Most questions were directly from ncert. Numericals were also easy. It wasn't tricky as most questions had a direct answer. I have written all answers properly with all keywords. Gave my best, says Shubhi Gautam, Class 10,  Student. 

May 10, 2022 | 02:56 PM IST

Cbse term 2 exam class 10: science paper was easy and as per syllabus, says student.

Aashika Thakur, Class 10th, Geeta Bal Bharti, Delhi has said that today's science exam was easy. Those who have prepared well for the exam will gain full marks nothing was out of the syllabus. All the sets of question paper was easy. The question paper contained straightforward questions and the length of attempting the question was short. It was not lengthy.

May 10, 2022 | 02:48 PM IST

Cbse term 2 exam 10th date 2022 important dates, may 10, 2022 | 02:27 pm ist, cbse term 2 class 10 science exam analysis 2022.

The difficulty level of the CBSE Board 10th Science paper was easy to moderate. The questions asked in the CBSE Board exam Science term 2 were from the syllabus prescribed by CBSE. No questions were out of syllabus. The paper was easy and doable.

May 10, 2022 | 02:20 PM IST

Cbse term 2 10th science.

Science exam paper went awesome (just like English) and it was easier than Sample paper. Can expect 39 or full score. #cbse #cbseterm2 — Roshan (@roshanmadhesiya) May 10, 2022

May 10, 2022 | 02:08 PM IST

Cbse class 10 science analysis 2022.

“It was an easy to moderate level paper. We found that no question was out of syllabus. Exposure to this typology of questions was given in our practice test papers and assignments given throughout the year. 50% of the paper was application based and 35% was a test of understanding. Only 15% was recall based. It is a scoring and a balanced paper.“ Chinar Banga, Deputy Head, Senior Years, Shiv Nadar School, Faridabad.  

May 10, 2022 | 01:49 PM IST

Cbse class 10 paper analysis: easier than expected.

As per NDTV , Sia, student of Sharda Sarvhitkari, said, "The exam was easier than expected and included all the syllabus." 

Shivani, a student of the same school said, "I completed my exam 30 minutes before the time was up so it went well for me."

May 10, 2022 | 01:34 PM IST

Cbse board exam 2022 concluded.

CBSE Class 10 term 2 Science exam 2022 was conducted for two hours and it was held between 10:30 am and 12:30 pm. The paper was held for maximum 40 marks. Meanwhile, the CBSE also conducting Food Production, Office Procedures, Design papers for Class 12 students.

May 10, 2022 | 01:21 PM IST

Cbse class 10 science exam: moderate to difficult paper, says teacher.

A Delhi government school teacher has said that the science paper was average. It was neither difficult nor easy. Students who have prepared well will find it easy. The CBSE science paper was moderate to difficult, reported Times of India. 

May 10, 2022 | 01:14 PM IST

Cbse term 2 science exam 2022: date sheet 2022 for class 12, may 10, 2022 | 12:47 pm ist, cbse class 10 science exam pattern.

science term 2 paper pattern class 10

May 10, 2022 | 12:40 PM IST

Cbse analysis 2022 class 10 science.

Coaching centres and teachers will provide CBSE class 10 science exam analysis 2022. Students will also share their opinions on CBSE science question paper 2022. 

May 10, 2022 | 12:32 PM IST

Cbse 10th term 2 science exam 2022 concludes.

CBSE 10th term 2 science exam 2022 has been concluded. Subject experts and teachers will share the CBSE science analysis and CBSE science answer key 2022 soon after the exams. 

May 10, 2022 | 12:19 PM IST

Cbse class 12 exam date.

CBSE board is conducting CBSE Class 12 exam for Food Production, Office Procedure & Practices, Design today on May 10, 2022. The exam has commenced on 10:30 am and will conclude at 12:30 pm. Tomorrow, the board will conduct exam for Punjabi, Bengali, Tamil, Telugu, Sidhi, Marathi, Gujarati, Manipuri, Malayalam, Odia, Assamese, Kannada, Arabic, Tibetan, French, German, Rusian, Persian, Nepali, Limboo, Lepcha, Telugu (Telangana), Bodo, Tangkhul, Japanese, Bhutia, Spanish, Kashmiri, Mizo subjects. 

May 10, 2022 | 12:06 PM IST

When 10th exam result 2022.

After term 2 exams, CBSE will release the final results. The board will announce the final CBSE 10th result 2022 in June 2022.  

May 10, 2022 | 11:56 AM IST

Know upcoming cbse term 2 board exam 2022.

The next CBSE 10th exam date 2022 is on May 12, 2022, for Urdu Course-A, Tamil, Telugu, Marathi , Gujarati, Manipuri, Urdu Course-B. The Urdu will be divided into three sections- A, B and C. The exam duration will be 2 minutes.

May 10, 2022 | 11:31 AM IST

10th public exam time table 2022.

CBSE board has released the 10th public time table 2022 on cbse.gov.in. As per 10th board exam time table 2022, the exams were commenced from April 26 and will conclude on May 24, 2022.

May 10, 2022 | 11:14 AM IST

In other news: www.cgbse.nic.in 10th result 2022.

Students have been asking 10th ka result kab aayega 2022 cg on social media. Reports said CG Board will announce Class 10, 12 result date today. The board is likely to announce the CG Board result for Classes 10 and 12 by May 14, 2022. Once declared, CGBSE result 2022 will be available on the official website cgbse.nic.in.

May 10, 2022 | 11:01 AM IST

Cbse class 10 science exam 2022 - marks distribution, may 10, 2022 | 10:43 am ist, cbse class 10 term 2 date sheet 2022, may 10, 2022 | 10:31 am ist, cbse class 10 science term 2 exam 2022 begins.

CBSE board has commenced Class 10 term 2 Science exam 2022. The exam duration is 2 hours. The  CBSE 10th Science exam  will conclude at 12:30 PM. 

May 10, 2022 | 10:21 AM IST

How to download cbse class 10 science sample paper.

Visit the oficial website, cbseacademic.nic.in class 10.

Click on the tab ‘ sample question papers’ 

Select ‘Class X Sample Question Papers’.

Now click on the link provided for sample paper class 10 term 2 social science. 

Now download the science sample paper class 10 term 2 for future reference.

May 10, 2022 | 10:06 AM IST

How to download cbse class 10 science term 2 exam 2022 syllabus.

  • Go to the official website cbseacademic.nic.in class 10
  • Click on the ‘term wise curriculum’ tab displayed on the home screen.  
  • Now click on ‘ term wise secondary curriculum’. 
  • Select ‘Term wise - Science’ 
  • The CBSE Class 10 syllabus will get displayed on the screens. 
  • Download the Science Class 10 syllabus for reference. 

May 10, 2022 | 09:53 AM IST

Cbse class 10 science term 2 exam 2022: barred items.

  • Mobile phones

May 10, 2022 | 09:43 AM IST

Sample paper class 10 term 2 science with answers.

science term 2 paper pattern class 10

May 10, 2022 | 09:36 AM IST

Cbse latest news for class 10: magnetic effect of electric current class 10.

Chapter 13 Magnetic effects of current include magnetic field, field lines, field due to a current carrying conductor, field due to current carrying coil or solenoid; Force on current carrying conductor, Fleming’s Left Hand Rule, Electric Motor, Electromagnetic induction. Induced potential difference, Induced current. Fleming’s Right Hand Rule.

May 10, 2022 | 09:27 AM IST

Science sample paper class 10 term 2.

The science class 10 paper will comprise of three sections.

  • Section–A has 7 questions of 2 marks each..
  • Section–B has 6 questions of 3 marks each 
  • Section C has 2 case based questions of 4 marks each. 

May 10, 2022 | 09:16 AM IST

10th class exam date 2022.

The term 2 result 2022 will be announced tentatively in July 2022 by the Central Board of Secondary Education. The CBSE result 2022 Class 10 term 2 will be posted on CBSE’s official website: cbseresults.nic.in.

May 10, 2022 | 09:11 AM IST

Cbse class 10 science syllabus 2022 for term 2, may 10, 2022 | 09:01 am ist, today 10th exam highlights.

Exam Day and Date - Tuesday, May 10, 2022

Exam start timing - 10:30 am

Exam concluding time - 12:30 pm

May 10, 2022 | 08:57 AM IST

Cbse board exam date 2022 class 10 term 2 admit card.

CBSE board had released the term 2 admit card 2022 on April 13, 2022. The admit cards were made available on the CBSE Board's official website, cbse.gov.in. The CBSE admit card was also available for the respective schools to download. To obtain a hard copy of the admit card, students must contact their schools.

May 10, 2022 | 08:56 AM IST

Www.cbse.nic.in 2022 class 10 start timing.

The cbseacademic.nic.in class 10 term 2 exam will commence at 10:30 am. Students should arrive at least 30 minutes prior to the exam reporting time

May 10, 2022 | 08:55 AM IST

Cbse class 10 syllabus 2022-23.

There are five sections of 80 marks in the CBSE Class 10 Science syllabus 2022, and practical tests will be worth 20 marks

May 10, 2022 | 08:54 AM IST

Cbse class 10 exam date 2022 term 2 - things to carry.

Admit card 

School ID 

Stationery item

Sanitiser 

Water bottle 

Higher Education Commission should ensure employability, job creation: Dharmendra Pradhan

According to the National Education Policy (NEP 2020), a single regulatory body will guide higher education in India.

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NCERT Solutions

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Science Term 2 Set 1 with Solutions

Students can access the  CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Science with Solutions and marking scheme Term 2 Set 1 will help students in understanding the difficulty level of the exam.

Time: 2 hours Maximum Marks: 40

General Instructions:

  • All questions are compulsory.
  • The question paper has three sections and 15 questions.
  • Section-A has 7 questions of 2 marks each; Section-B has 6 questions of 3 marks each; and Section-C has 2 case based questions of 4 marks each.
  • Internal choices have been provided in some questions. A student has to attempt only one of the alternatives in such questions.

Section – A

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Science Term 2 Set 1 with Solutions 1

(b) “Carbon reacts with an element in the above table to form several compounds.” Give suitable reason. Answer: Carbon has a valency of four or tetravalency & catenation

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Science Term 2 Set 1 with Solutions 2

(b) Between the two elements W and Z, which will have a bigger atomic radius? Why? Answer: W has bigger atomic radius.

Reason: Down the group, number of shells increases.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Science Term 2 Set 1 with Solutions

Question 3. (a) Trace the path a male gamete takes to fertilise a female gamete after being released from the penis. [2] Answer: Male gamete (sperm) travels in the female reproductive tract after being released. The path which it takes to fertilise the female gamete (egg) is vagina, uterus, fallopian tube where it fuses with the egg cell resulting in the formation of a zygote (Alternative: labelled figure of human female reproductive system indicating the passage of sperm from vagina to uterus and then to fallopian tube for fertilisation, resulting in the formation of a zygote.)

(b) State the number of sets of chromosomes present in a zygote. Answer: Zygote has 2 sets of chromosomes.

Question 4. Rajesh observed a patch of greenish black powdery mass on a stale piece of bread. [2] (a) Name the organism responsible for this and its specific mode of asexual reproduction. Answer: The greenish black powdery mass on a stale piece of bread is due to bread mould (Rhizopus) which reproduces by spore formation.

(b) Name its vegetative and reproductive parts. Answer: Hyphae or thread like structures are the vegetative part and tiny blob like structures or sporangia are the reproductive parts.

Question 5. Mustard was growing in two fields- A and B, while field A produced brown coloured seeds, field B produced yellow coloured seeds. [2] It was observed that in field A, the offsprings showed only the parental trait for consecutive generations, whereas in field B, majority of the offsprings showed a variation in the progeny. What are the probable reasons for these? OR In an asexually reproducing species, if a trait X exists in 5% of a population and trait Y exists in 70% of the same population, which of the two traits is likely to have arisen earlier? Give reason. Answer: In field A, the reason for parental trait in consecutive generations of the offsprings is self-pollination. In field B, variation is seen because of recombination of genes as cross-pollination is taking place.

  • Trait Y, which exists in 70% (larger fraction) of the population, is likely to have arisen earlier because in asexual reproduction, identical, copies of DNA are produced and variations do not occur.
  • New traits come in the population due to sudden mutation and then are inherited. 70 % of the population with trait Y is likely to have been replicating that trait for a longer period, than 5 % of population with trait X.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Science Term 2 Set 1 with Solutions 4

(a) Relative closeness of field lines indicates the strength of magnetic field. Since, field lines are crowded around the ends of the solenoid, hence these are the regions of strongest magnetism. (b) The direction of the field will also be reversed.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Science Term 2 Set 1 with Solutions 6

  • DDT being a non-biodegradable pesticide will enter the food chain from the first trophic level i.e., Plankton.
  • Non-biodegradable pesticides accumulate progressively at each trophic level. This phenomenon is known as biological magnification.
  • Hawk will have the highest level of pesticide.
  • A will represent more energy transfer as compared to C and E.
  • B will represent more energy transfer as compared to D.
  • When green plants are eaten by primary consumers, a great amount of energy is lost as heat in to the environment, some amount goes into digestion and in doing work and the rest goes towards growth and reproduction. An average of 10% of the food eaten is made available for the next level of consumers. This loss of energy takes place at every trophic level.
  • (Alternatively accept- In accordance with 10% law of transfer of energy in a food chain, only 10% of energy available at one trophic level is transferred to the next trophic level.)

Section – B

Question 8. Choose an element from period 3 of modern periodic table that matches the description given below in each instance. Give reason for your choice. [3] (a) It has a similar structure to diamond. Answer: Silicon

Reason: Tetrahedral structure OR Tetravalency or four valeny and catenation OR Covalent bonding like carbon

(b) It has same valency as Lithium. Answer: Sodium

Reason: It has 1 valence electron like Lithium

(c) It has variable valency and is a member of the Oxygen family (group 16). Answer: Sulphur

Reason: It forms oxides SO 2 and SO 3

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Science Term 2 Set 1 with Solutions 7

(b) C 4 H 8 and C 5 H 10 are homologous Vz as they differ in

  • “-CH 2 -“
  • differ in 14u molecular mass
  • Same functional group
  • Same general formula

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Science Term 2 Set 1 with Solutions 8

Question 10. Two pea plants-one with round yellow (RRYY) seeds and another with wrinkled green (rryy) seeds produce F 1 progeny that have round, yellow (RrYy) seeds. [3] When F 1 plants are self-pollinated, which new combination of characters is expected in F 2 progeny? How many seeds with these new combinations of characters will be produced when a total of 160 seeds are produced in F 2 generation? Explain with reason. Answer: Round green: 30 Wrinkled yellow: 30 New combinations are produced because of the independent inheritance of seed shape and seed colour trait.

Question 11. (a) It would cost a man ₹ 3,50 to buy 1.0 kW h of electrical energy from the Main Electricity Board. His generator has a maximum power of 2.0 kW. The generator produces energy at this maximum power for 3 hours. Calculate how much it would cost to buy the same amount of energy from the Main Electricity Board. [1] Answer: E = P × T So, E = 3 × 2 = 6 kWh Cost of buying electricity from the main electricity board = 6 × 3.50 = ₹ 21.0

(b) A student boils water in an electric kettle for 20 minutes. Using the same mains supply, he wants to reduce the boiling time of water. To do so, should he increase or decrease the length of the heating element? Justify your answer. [2] Answer: To reduce the boiling time using the same mains supply, the rate of heat production should be large. We know that P = V 2 /R. Since V is constant, R should be decreased. Since R is directly proportional to L so, length should be decreased.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Science Term 2 Set 1 with Solutions 9

Now R 1 and R 6 are in series and hence the final equivalent resistance of the entire circuit is R = R 1 + R 6 = 12 ohm. By Ohm’s Law, we know that V = IR, hence I = V/R. Hence the current in the circuit is 24/12 A = 2A

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Science Term 2 Set 1 with Solutions 13

(b) Why is it essential for all living beings? State the cause for the depletion of this gas. Answer: Ozone shields the surface of the earth and protects living organisms from ultraviolet (UV) radiations released by the sun. Chlorofluorocarbons (CFC’s) which are used as refrigerants in fire extinguishers lead to depletion of ozone layer.

Section – C

This section has 02 case-based questions (14 and 15). Each case is followed by 03 sub-questions (a), (b), (c). Parts (a) and (b) are compulsory. However, an internal choice has been provided in part (c).

Question 14. Sahil performed an experiment to study the inheritance pattern of genes. He crossed tall pea plants (TT) with short pea plants (tt) and obtained all tall plants in F 1 generation. [1] (a) What set of genes will be present in the F 1 generation? (b) Give reason, why only tall plants are observed in F 1 progeny. [1] (c) When F 1 plants were self – pollinated, a total of 800 plants were produced. How many of these would be tall, medium height or short plants? Give the genotype of F 2 generation. [2] OR When F 1 plants were cross-pollinated with plants having tt genes, a total of 800 plants were produced. How many of these would be tall, medium, or short plants? Give the genotype of F 2 generation. Answer: (a) Tt

(b) Both the recessive and dominant trait are passed on in Fj progeny. Out of the two trait only one of them is able to express itself in the progeny, which is called the dominant (T), while the other one is called the recessive (t). Here, the ‘tali’ trait is the dominant one.

(c) Out of 800 plants, 600 plants will be tall and 200 plants will be small. 1:2:1 (TT:Tt:tt) OR In the cross between Tt X tt, 400 Tall (Tt) and 400 short (tt) plants will be produced. 1:1(Tt:tt)

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Science Term 2 Set 1 with Solutions 14

When the magnet moves into the coil, the galvanometer shows a momentary deflection towards one side, say left. When the magnet moves out of the coil, the galvanometer shows a momentary deflection now towards right. This is due to changing magnetic field /flux associated with the coil as the magnet moves in and out. Alternatively, the flux increases when the magnet goes in and it decreases when the magnet goes out.

CBSE Exam Pattern For Class 10

CBSE Class 10 Board Exam Pattern 2023 For Term 1 & Term 2

CBSE Exam Pattern For Class 10 2023 For Term 1 & Term 2 : For the academic year 2023-2024, the Central Board of Secondary Education (CBSE) has introduced a new assessment scheme for CBSE Class 10 students. The complete academic year will be divided into two terms under the new exam policy, and the board will administer two exams, one at the end of each term.

Table of Contents

CBSE Exam Pattern For Class 10 2023 For Term 1 & Term 2

There are two terms in the current academic year. Check out the latest exam pattern to help you prepare for the CBSE Class 10 Board Exam 2023-24.

CBSE Class 10 Term 1 Board Exam Pattern 2023-2024

Objective Type Exam: The question paper will have multiple choice questions (MCQ) including case-based MCQs and MCQs on the assertion-reasoning type.

Max. Marks : 50

Exam Duration: 90 minutes

Question papers  will be based on approximately 50% of the entire syllabus.

CBSE Class 10 Term 2 Board Exam Pattern 2023-2024

Descriptive Type Exam: The question paper will have various question types (case-based/situation-based, open-ended-short answer/long answer type).

Exam Duration: 2 hours

Question papers  will be based on the remaining 50% syllabus.

Students ALERT:   For Term 2, the Board has decided on an alternative assessment policy in advance. If the situation does not allow a typical descriptive test at the end of Term 2, a 90-minute MCQ-based exam, similar to the Term 1 Exam, will be conducted.

Internal Assessment Scheme for Academic Year 2023-2024

Internal assessment will be required of CBSE Class 10 Students throughout the year, “irrespective of Term I and II.”

Internal evaluation criteria remain unchanged. It will consist of the following activities:

➤ Three periodic tests

➤ Subject enrichment activities

➤ Portfolio

➤ Practical work (for selective subjects)

➤ Speaking listening activities (for language subjects)

➤ Project work

class 10th rd sharma and rs aggarwal solutions

CBSE Exam Pattern For Class 10: Alternatives for Term 1 and Term 2 Exam for Worst-Case Scenarios

In order to avoid any trouble during the current academic session’s evaluation procedure for CBSE Class 10, the board has developed four possible evaluation scenarios. These are the following:

(i) If both term-end exams are successfully conducted at schools/centers, the final theory marks will be divided evenly between the two exams.

In this instance, the weighting of the Term 1 exam for the final score would be reduced, while the weighting of the Term 2 exams for the CBSE Class 10 Final Result would be increased.

(iii) If the Term 1 examination is physically held but the Term II exams are not, the results will be based on the student’s performance in the Term 1 exam and internal assessments.

(iv) If both term-end exams are not held at schools/centers, the CBSE Class 10 Results 2023-2024 will be calculated using the candidate’s internal assessment/practical/project work and theory marks from Term I and II exams taken at home.

oswaal cbse class 10 question bank

Subject-wise CBSE Exam Pattern for Class 10 2023 For Term 1 & Term 2

The CBSE New Exam Pattern for each subject is as given below:

CBSE Exam Pattern for Class 10 Maths 2023 For Term 1 & Term 2

The  mathematical  question  paper  is  divided  into  four  sections each  with  30  questions :

  • Very Short Answer Type(VSA) Questions- 6 questions of 1 mark each,
  • Short Answer Type Questions I – 6 questions of 2 marks each,
  • Short answer type questions II – 10 questions of 3 marks each and
  • Long Answer Type Questions – 8 questions of 4 marks each.

CBSE Exam Pattern For Class 10 Social Science 2023 For Term 1 & Term 2

There are 25 questions from the core subject and 1-3 questions based on map skills on the Social Science question paper.

Here you can check the latest and previous CBSE Class 10 Social Science Exam Pattern:

CBSE Exam Pattern For Class 10 Science 2023 For Term 1 & Term 2

There are 27 questions in the Science question paper, divided into sections A and B.

  • Section A comprises 2 VSA of 1 mark each, 3 SA-I of 2 marks each, 10 SA-II of 3 marks each, and 6 LA of 5 marks each. Section A is based on subject knowledge.
  • Section B comprises 6 questions of 2 marks each based on practical knowledge.

Here you can check the CBSE Class 10 Science Latest Exam Pattern:

CBSE Exam Pattern for Class 10 English (Communicative) 2023 For Term 1 & Term 2

There are 11 questions on the English question paper, which are divided into three sections: A, B, and C. Here you can check the CBSE Exam Pattern For Class 10 English:

Other Important Links Related To Central Board of Secondary Education Class 10 2023 For Term 1 & Term 2

  • NCERT Solutions For Class 10
  • Class 10 Books For All Subjects
  • Class 10 Sample Papers 
  • Class 10 Previous Year Papers
  • CBSE Class 10 Marking Scheme
  • CBSE Grading System
  • Class 10 Study Plan To Score High
  • Class 10 Admit Card
  • Class 10 Date Sheet
  • Class 10 Practical Exam
  • Class 10th Result

CBSE Class 10 Grading System 2023 For Term 1 & Term 2

Students are graded on a 9-point scale in the CBSE Class 10 examination. Grades are assigned based on formative and summative evaluation and correspond to a range of marks. The following is a nine-point grading scale:

Now you have the latest CBSE Exam Pattern For Class 10 2023-24. Prepare for your exam with the best   CBSE Class 10 Study Material and score a better mark on the board exam.  Feel free to ask any questions related to CBSE Class 10.

FAQs on CBSE Exam Pattern For Class 10 2023 For Term 1 & Term 2

How is cbse 10th-grade marks for science determined.

According to the evaluation standards, Class 10 students will receive a total of 100 points, with 20 points going to internal assessment, which might be either practical or project work depending on the subject, and 80 points going to their performance in the board test.

What is the passing mark in 10th CBSE?

As per the CBSE Exam Pattern For Class 10, Students must achieve a minimum of 33% in theory exams, practicals, and internal assessments in order to pass the CBSE 10th grade.

Do computer marks add in Class 10 CBSE 2023?

In the CBSE Class 10 Board Exams, computer marks are included, as, the computer is an additional subject.

Will CBSE give grace marks?

In the case that the board’s policy of awarding grace marks is violated during compilation, the board will continue to do so.

What are the total marks in CBSE 10th?

As per the latest CBSE Exam Pattern For Class 10, the theory papers will be of 80 marks, while the internal assessment will be 20.

4 thoughts on “CBSE Class 10 Board Exam Pattern 2023 For Term 1 & Term 2”

Will the 10th board exam this year be conducted online ?

No. Thank You So Much For Your Feedback, Keep Checking CBSE Class 10 Related Blogs Here: https://www.kopykitab.com/blog/cbse-class-10/

This sounds me crazy!!

Thank you for providing nice information importance of cbse exam for 10th standard class. This topic will definitely help for school students.

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Class 10 Science Term 2 Sample Paper 2022 (Solved)

Science term 2 sample paper 2022 (solved).

Class 10 Science Term 2 Sample Paper 2022 ,  (Science) exams are Students are taught thru NCERT books in some of the state board and CBSE Schools. As the chapter involves an end, there is an exercise provided to assist students to prepare for evaluation. Students need to clear up those exercises very well because the questions inside the very last asked from those.

Sometimes, students get stuck inside the exercises and are not able to clear up all of the questions. To assist students, solve all of the questions, and maintain their studies without a doubt, we have provided a step-by-step NCERT Sample Question Papers for the students for all classes. These answers will similarly help students in scoring better marks with the assist of properly illustrated Notes as a way to similarly assist the students and answer the questions right.

Science Term 2 Sample Paper 2022

General Instructions:

(i) All questions are compulsory.

(ii) The question paper has three sections and 15 questions.

(iii) Section – A has 7 questions of 2 marks each; Section – B has 6 questions of 3 marks each; and Section – C has 2 case based questions of 4 marks each.

(iv) Internal choices have been provided in some questions. A student has to attempt only one of the alternatives in such questions.

Section – A

1. The table shows the electronic structures of four elements.         [2]

science term 2 paper pattern class 10

(a) Identify which element(s) will form covalent bonds with carbon.

(b) “Carbon reacts with an element in the above table to form several compounds.” Give suitable reason.

2. The diagram below shows part of the periodic table.        [2]

(a) Which elements would react together to form covalent compounds?

(b) Between the two elements W and Z, which will have a bigger atomic radius? Why?

science term 2 paper pattern class 10

3. (a) Trace the path a male gamete takes to fertilise a female gamete after being released from the penis.

(b) State the number of sets of chromosomes present in a zygote.     [2]

4. Rajesh observed a patch of greenish black powdery mass on a stale piece of bread.     [2]

(a) Name the organism responsible for this and its specific mode of asexual reproduction.

(b) Name its vegetative and reproductive parts.

5. Mustard was growing in two fields- A and B, while field A produced brown coloured seeds, field B produced yellow coloured seeds.

It was observed that in field A, the offsprings showed only the parental trait for consecutive generations, whereas in field B, majority of the offsprings showed a variation in the progeny.

What are the probable reasons for these?        [2]

In an asexually reproducing species, if a trait X exists in 5% of a population and trait Y exists in 70% of the same population, which of the two traits is likely to have arisen earlier? Give reason.     

6. A simple motor is made in a school laboratory. A coil of wire is mounted on an axle between the poles of a horseshoe magnet, as illustrated.             [2]

science term 2 paper pattern class 10

In the example above, coil ABCD is horizontal and the battery is connected as shown.

(a) For this position, state the direction of the force on the arm AB.

(b) Why does the current in the arm BC not contribute to the turning force on the coil?

A circuit contains a battery, a variable resistor and a solenoid. The figure below shows the magnetic field pattern produced by the current in the solenoid.

science term 2 paper pattern class 10

(a) State how the magnetic field pattern indicates regions, where the magnetic field is stronger.

(b) What happens to the magnetic field when the current in the circuit is reversed?

7. DDT was sprayed in a lake to regulate breeding of mosquitoes. How would it affect the trophic levels in the following food chain associated with a lake? Justify your answer.       [2]

science term 2 paper pattern class 10

In the following food chain, vertical arrows indicate the energy lost to the environment and horizontal arrows indicate the energy transferred to the next trophic level. Which one of the three vertical arrows (A, C and E) and which one of the two horizontal arrows (B and D) will represent more energy transfer? Give reason for your answer.

science term 2 paper pattern class 10

Section – B

8. Choose an element from period 3 of modern periodic table that matches the description given below in each instance. Give reason for your choice.       [3]

(a) It has a similar structure to diamond.

(b) It has same valency as Lithium.

(c) It has variable valency and is a member of the Oxygen family (group 16).

9. (a) How many isomers are possible for the compound with the molecular formula C 4 H 8 ? Draw electron dot structure of branched chain isomer.

(b) How will you prove that C 4 H 8 and C 5 H 10 are homologous?     [3]

A carbon compound ‘A’ having melting point 156K and boiling point 351K, with molecular formula C 2 H 6 O is soluble in water in all proportions.

(a) Identify ‘A’ and draw its electron dot structure.

(b) Give the molecular formulae of any two homologous of ‘A’.

10. Two pea plants-one with round yellow (RRYY) seeds and another with wrinkled green (rryy) seeds produce F 1 progeny that have round, yellow (RrYy) seeds.

When F 1 plants are self-pollinated, which new combination of characters is expected in F 2 progeny? How many seeds with these new combinations of characters will be produced when a total of 160 seeds are produced in F 2 generation? Explain with reason.           [3]

11. (a) It would cost a man ₹3.50 to buy 1.0 kW h of electrical energy from the Main Electricity Board. His generator has a maximum power of 2.0 kW. The generator produces energy at this maximum power for 3 hours. Calculate how much it would cost to buy the same amount of energy from the Main Electricity Board.       [1]

(b) A student boils water in an electric kettle for 20 minutes. Using the same mains supply, he wants to reduce the boiling time of water. To do so, should he increase or decrease the length of the heating element? Justify your answer.       [2]

science term 2 paper pattern class 10

In the above circuit, if the current reading in the ammeter A is 2A, what would be the value of R 1 ?       [3]

science term 2 paper pattern class 10

Calculate the total resistance of the circuit and find the total current in the circuit.

13. Gas A, found in the upper layers of the atmosphere, is a deadly poison but is essential for all living beings. The amount of this gas started declining sharply in the 1980’s.       [3]

(a) Identify Gas A. How is it formed at higher levels of the atmosphere?

(b) Why is it essential for all living beings? State the cause for the depletion of this gas.

Section – C

This section has 02 case-based questions (14 and 15). Each case is followed by 03 sub-questions (a), (b), (c). Parts (a) and (b) are compulsory. However, an internal choice has been provided in part (c).

14. Sahil performed an experiment to study the inheritance pattern of genes. He crossed tall pea plants (TT) with short pea plants (tt) and obtained all tall plants in F 1 generation.

(a) What set of genes will be present in the F 1 generation?       [1]

(b) Give reason, why only tall plants are observed in F 1 progeny.       [1]

(c) When F 1 plants were self – pollinated, a total of 800 plants were produced. How many of these would be tall, medium height or short plants? Give the genotype of F 2 generation.       [2]

When F1 plants were cross-pollinated with plants having tt genes, a total of 800 plants were produced. How many of these would be tall, medium, or short plants? Give the genotype of F 2 generation.

15. Ansari Sir was demonstrating an experiment in his class with the setup as shown in the figure below.      [4]

science term 2 paper pattern class 10

A magnet is attached to a spring. The magnet can go in and out of the stationary coil.

He lifted the magnet and released it to make it oscillate through the coil. Based on your understanding of the phenomenon, answer the following questions.

(a) What is the principle which Ansari Sir is trying to demonstrate?      [1]

(b) What will be observed when the magnet starts oscillating through the coil. Explain the reason behind this observation.       [1]

(c) Consider the situation where the magnet goes in and out of the coil. State two changes which could be made to increase the deflection in the galvanometer.        [2]

Is there any difference in the observations in the galvanometer when the magnet swings in and then out of the stationary coil? Justify your answer.        [2]

Solution of Sample Paper

1. (a) P and R         ½ + ½

(b) Carbon has a valency of four or tetravalency & catenation           ½ + ½

2. (a) Y and Z         1

(b) W has bigger atomic radius.      ½

Reason: Down the group, number of shells increases.        ½

3. (a) Male gamete (sperm) travels in the female reproductive tract after being released. The path which it takes to fertilise the female gamete (egg) is vagina, uterus, fallopian tube where it fuses with the egg cell resulting in the formation of a zygote

(Alternative: labelled figure of human female reproductive system indicating the passage of sperm from vagina to uterus and then to fallopian tube for fertilisation, resulting in the formation of a zygote.)        1

(b) Zygote has 2 sets of chromosomes.      1

4. (a) The greenish black powdery mass on a stale piece of bread is due to bread mould (Rhizopus) which reproduces by spore formation.         ½ + ½

(b) Hyphae or thread like structures are the vegetative part and tiny blob like structures or sporangia are the reproductive parts.        ½ + ½

5. In field A, the reason for parental trait in consecutive generations of the offsprings is self-pollination.         1

In field B, variation is seen because of recombination of genes as cross-pollination is taking place.    1

Trait Y, which exists in 70% (larger fraction) of the population, is likely to have arisen earlier because in asexual reproduction, identical, copies of DNA are produced and variations do not occur.     1

New traits come in the population due to sudden mutation and then are inherited. 70 % of the population with trait Y is likely to have been replicating that trait for a longer period, than 5 % of population with trait X.       1

6. (a) downwards         1

(b) Because BC is in the same direction as the direction of field lines. Force is minimum when the direction of current in the conductor is the same as that of the magnetic field. BC will not contribute as the force on this part of the coil will be cancelled by the force on DA.       1

(a) Relative closeness of field lines indicates the strength of magnetic field. Since, field lines are crowded around the ends of the solenoid, hence these are the regions of strongest magnetism.       1

(b) The direction of the field will also be reversed.       1

7. • DDT being a non-biodegradable pesticide will enter the food chain from the first trophic level i.e, Plankton.       ½

• Non-biodegradable pesticides accumulate progressively at each trophic level. This phenomenon is known as biological magnification.         1

• Hawk will have the highest level of pesticide.         ½

A will represent more energy transfer as compared to C and E.       ½

B will represent more energy transfer as compared to D.          ½

When green plants are eaten by primary consumers, a great amount of energy is lost as heat in to the environment, some amount goes into digestion and in doing work and the rest goes towards growth and reproduction. An average of 10% of the food eaten is made available for the next level of consumers. This loss of energy takes place at every trophic level.      1

(Alternatively accept- In accordance with 10% law of transfer of energy in a food chain, only 10% of energy available at one trophic level is transferred to the next trophic level.)

8. (a) Silicon

Reason: Tetrahedral structure

Tetravalency or four valency and catenation

Covalent bonding like carbon           ½ + ½

Reason: It has 1 valence electron like Lithium       ½

(c) Sulphur

Reason: It forms oxides SO 2 and SO 3           ½ + ½

9. (a) Five          1½

science term 2 paper pattern class 10

(b) C4H8 and C5H10 are homologous as they differ in         ½

• “–CH 2 – “

• differ in 14u molecular mass

• Same functional group

• Same general formula (Any two reasons)         ½ +½

(a) Ethanol; C 2 H 5 OH         1 + 1

science term 2 paper pattern class 10

(b) CH 3 OH and C 3 H 7 OH are homologous of ethanol.        1

CH 4 O and C 3 H 8 O      1

10. Round green: 30       ½ + ½

Wrinkled yellow: 30          ½ + ½

New combinations are produced because of the independent inheritance of seed shape and seed colour trait.       1

11. (a) E = P x T

So, E = 3 x 2 = 6 kWh       1

Cost of buying electricity from the main electricity board = 6 x 3.50 = ₹ 21.0

(b) To reduce the boiling time using the same mains supply, the rate of heat production should be large. We know that P = V 2 /R. Since V is constant, R should be decreased. Since R is directly proportional to L so, length should be decreased.        2

12. 5 ohm, 10 ohm and R 1 are in parallel connection

1/R p = 1/5 + 1/10 + 1/R 1

1/R p = (2 + 1)/10 + 1/R 1

= 3/10 + 1/R 1

1/R p = (3R 1 + 10)/10R 1

R p = 10R 1 /(3R 1 + 10)

Now, 6 ohm, 6 ohm and R p are in series

R eq = 12 + 10 R 1 (3R 1 + 10) …..(i) 1

From the circuit

R eq = 30/2 = 15Ω …..(ii) 1

Equating (i) and (ii)

12 + 10 R 1 /(3R 1 + 10) = 15

10R 1 /(3R 1 + 10) = 3

10R 1 = (9R 1 + 30)

Thus, R 1 = 30 ohm 1

science term 2 paper pattern class 10

R 3 and R 4 are in series, hence the equivalent resistance of those two = R 5 = R 3 + R 4 = 10 ohm.    ½

R 5 and R 2 are in parallel, Let R 6 be the equivalent resistance for them. Hence, R 6 = (R 5 R 2 )/(R 5 + R 2 ) = 100/20 = 5 ohm    ½

Now R 1 and R 6 are in series and hence the final equivalent resistance of the entire circuit is R = R 1 + R 6 = 12 ohm.        1

By Ohm’s Law, we know that V = IR, hence I = V/R.

Hence the current in the circuit is 24/12 A = 2A     1

13. (a) Gas A is Ozone.        ½

Ozone at the higher levels of the atmosphere is a product of UV radiation acting on oxygen (O 2 ) molecule. The higher energy UV radiations split apart some molecular oxygen (O 2 ) into free oxygen (O) atoms. These atoms then combine with molecular oxygen to form Ozone.        1

science term 2 paper pattern class 10

(b) Ozone shields the surface of the earth and protects living organisms from ultraviolet (UV) radiations released by the sun.      ½

Chlorofluorocarbons (CFC’s) which are used as refrigerants in fire extinguishers lead to depletion of ozone layer.        ½ + ½

14. (a) Tt       1

(b) Both the recessive and dominant trait are passed on in F 1 progeny. Out of the two trait only one of them is able to express itself in the progeny, which is called the dominant (T), while the other one is called the recessive (t). Here, the ‘tall’ trait is the dominant one.         1

(c) Out of 800 plants, 600 plants will be tall and 200 plants will be small.

1 : 2 : 1 (TT : Tt : tt)        1 + 1

In the cross between Tt X tt, 400 Tall (Tt) and 400 short (tt) plants will be produced.      1

1 : 1(Tt : tt)          1

15. (a) Sir is trying to demonstrate the principle of Electromagnetic induction.       1

(b) There will be fluctuating induced current in the coil due to relative motion between the magnet and the coil. Accordingly the galvanometer needle will fluctuate on either side of 0 mark. Changing the magnetic field around the coil generates induced current.         1

(c) Using a stronger magnet, or using a coil with more number of turns.         2

When the magnet moves into the coil, the galvanometer shows a momentary deflection towards one side, say left.      ½

When the magnet moves out of the coil, the galvanometer shows a momentary deflection now towards right.         ½

This is due to changing magnetic field /flux associated with the coil as the magnet moves in and out.

Alternatively, the flux increases when the magnet goes in and it decreases when the magnet goes out.         1

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CBSE Class 10 Home Science Exam Tomorrow; Details On Term 2 Sample Question, Paper Pattern

Cbse term 2: the class 10 home science question paper will contain three sections. all the sections will be compulsory. while section a will have seven questions of two marks each, section b and section c will have three questions each..

CBSE Class 10 Home Science Exam Tomorrow; Details On Term 2 Sample Question, Paper Pattern

CBSE Home Science Class 10 exam tomorrow

Students will appear for the Class 10 Home Science paper in the second term of Central Board of Secondary Education (CBSE) exams tomorrow, May 2. As per the CBSE Home Science sample paper pattern, the exams in term 2 will be held for two hours. The Class 10 Home Science question papers in the term 2 exams, will have 13 questions. 15 minutes of reading time will be allotted to the students to read the question paper. The term 2 CBSE exams for Class 10 started on April 26 and will continue till May 24.

The Class 10 Home Science question paper will contain three sections. All the sections will be compulsory. While Section A will have seven questions of two marks each, Section B and Section C will have three questions each and each question will carry three marks and four marks respectively.

As per the CBSE sample paper Class 10 term 2 board exam 2022, the Home Science question paper will have internal choices in some questions.

Home Science Sample Paper Class 10 With Solution: Direct Link

Cbseacademic.nic.in class 10 home science marking scheme: direct link.

Candidates taking the CBSE term 2 board exams 202 will be required to carry their admit cards, own hand sanitiser in transparent bottle. As per the CBSE term 2 exam guidelines, candidates will have to cover their nose, mouth and nose with mask. Students appearing the CBSE term 2 exams will have to follow social distancing norms.

The Class 10 CBSE term 2 exam is being held in 7,406 centres across the country. As many as 21,16,209 Class 10 students have registered for the term 2 Class 10 exams.

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CBSE Class 10 Science Exam Pattern 2024 with Marking Scheme, Question Paper Blue Print

CBSE Class 10  Science Exam Pattern 2024: Check the detailed exam pattern, marking scheme and format of questions for CBSE Class 10 Science Exam 2024. Also, download important resources for effective exam preparations.

Gurmeet Kaur

CBSE Class 10  Science Exam Pattern 2024: The Central Board of Secondary Education (CBSE) will conduct the board exam for the 2023-24 session in February-March 2024. The date sheet will be released anytime soon. The board exam, this year, will be based on the revised exam pattern with an increase in competency-based questions. It is essential for students to thoroughly understand the latest exam pattern and marking scheme to prepare effectively and achieve their desired results. 

In this article, we have discussed the CBSE Class 10 Science Exam Pattern for the 2024 exam in detail. Here, you will get to know the number and type of questions for the Class 10 Science Exam 2024. Additionally, the marks distribution and the chapter-wise weightage are also explained in a detailed manner that will make it easier for you to decide which topics need extra attention and which are less important from the exam point of view. Go through the complete article to learn all the important information on the CBSE Class 10 Science Exam Pattern 2024.

Also Check: CBSE Class 10 Science Deleted Syllabus for Board Exam 2024

CBSE Class 10 Science Exam Pattern 2024

In the CBSE Class 10 Science Exam 2024, almost 50% of the questions would be of competency level requiring students to apply their analytical and critical thinking skills. Such questions will be asked in different formats like multiple-choice questions, case study-based or source-based questions.

CBSE Class 10 Science Question Paper Pattern 2024

The CBSE Class 10 Science theory exam will be of 80 marks and will be conducted for a duration of 3 hours. Students will also get an additional 15 minutes to read the question paper.

  • Section A: Objective Type Questions (20 marks)
  • Section B: Short Answer Type Questions - I (12 marks)
  • Section C: Short Answer Type Questions - II (21 marks)
  • Section D: Long Answer Type Questions (15 marks)
  • Section C: Case Study Based Questions (12 marks)

In Section - A questions 1-16 will be of MCQ type while 17-20 will be asked in Assertion-Reason format.

Internal Assessment 2023-24

Overall Passing Criteria

The overall passing criteria for the CBSE Class 10 Science exam is 33%. This means that students must score at least 33%, including the internal assessment, in order to pass the exam.

CBSE Class 10 Science Topic-wise Weightage 

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PSEB Class 10 English Question Paper 2024 PDF with Answer Key

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PSEB 10th English Paper 2024 with Solutions: The Punjab School Education Board (PSEB) conducted the Class 10 English paper today, February 19, 2024 (Monday). The paper was held from 11:00 am to 02:15 pm. Students were provided 15 minutes of reading time before the commencement of the exam, allowing them to carefully review all the questions, and understand the exam structure and content. Students who appeared for the exam seemed to be satisfied with the overall difficulty level of the paper. They are now discussing their answers and calculating their expected marks in the PSEB Class 10 English Exam 2024. In this article, we have provided the question paper of PSEB 10th English along with the answer key/solutions for today’s exam. Students can check the solutions and verify their answers to review their performance and gain insights into the examination pattern and marking scheme.

Also Check PSEB Class 10 English Paper Analysis 2024, Student Feedback & D ifficulty Level

PSEB Class 10 English Question Paper Pattern 2024

The English exam was for 80 marks and was to be attempted within three hours. There were total 10 questions in the paper divided into 5 sections:

The question paper pattern was in line with the format of the PSEB Class 10 English Model Paper 2024 . Check the question paper and solutions below:

PSEB Class 10 English Question Paper 2024

Download the full question paper below:

PSEB Class 10 English Answer Key 2024

To be updated shortly

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PSEB Class 10 Syllabus for Board Exam 2024

PSEB Class 10 Model Papers for Board Exam 2024

PSEB Class 10 English Question Paper 2024 PDF with Answer Key

CBSE Class 10 Hindi Answer Key 2024 Out For Course A, B Set 1,2,3_00.1

CBSE Class 10 Hindi Answer Key 2024 Out For Course A, B Set 1,2,3

CBSE Class 10 Hindi Answer key 2024 will be shared on this page. Students can match their answers with the most accurate CBSE answer key hindi class 10 prepared by the expert facilities of Adda247.

CBSE Class 10 Hindi Answer Key 2024 Out For Course A, B Set 1,2,3_20.1

Table of Contents

Hindi Answer Key Class 10

The Central Board of Secondary Education successfully conducted the Class 10 Hindi Test on February 21, 2024. The Class 10 Hindi exam  took place between 10:30 am and 01:30 pm. As the test is over, students can check the CBSE Hindi answer key 2024 class 10 from this page.

Hindi Answer Key 2024 Class 10

We have provided the questions and their answers in Class 10 Hindi Answer Key 2024 so that students will find it simple to compare their answers to those provided. For Class 10 Hindi 2024 for the forthcoming test, read through the entire Hindi answer key 2024 class 10 and save this page.

CBSE Class 10 Hindi Answer Key 2024 Out For Course A, B Set 1,2,3_30.1

Class 10 Hindi Answer key 2024 Set 1 2 3 4

Candidates rush to find the Class 10 Hindi Answer Key 2024 after the exam is over. For the benefit of the students, we have provided you the Class 10 Hindi Answer key 2024 for all sets and Exam analysis. Whenever the CBSE Class 10 Hindi Test 2024 is over, we have to give the detailed 100% correct CBSE Class 10 Hindi Answer key 2024 with question paper analysis as soon as possible. Bookmark this page to obtain the CBSE Class 10 Hindi answer key for all sets at your fingertip.

Answer key Hindi Class 10- Question Paper Pattern

To use the Class 10 Hindi Answer Key to estimate their predicted Scores, candidates must be familiar with the Class 10 Hindi exam format. Hindi for CBSE Class 10 The question paper for Exam A will include questions of a subjective nature. The exam for Hindi Course A will have 80 marks and 17 questions, while the exam for Hindi Course B will have 80 marks and 18 questions. The following is the scoring breakdown for each paper.

CBSE Class 10 Hindi Syllabus & Exam Pattern

Class 10 Hindi Board Paper 2024 Answer key

We offering an Unofficial class 10 hindi board paper 2024 answer key so that students can know their projected marks for the Class 10 Hindi Test. Have a look at the table below to access a brief detail about class 10 hindi board paper 2024 answer key:

CBSE Class 10 Hindi Answer Key 2024 Out For Course A, B Set 1,2,3_40.1

Hindi Answer Key 2024 Class 10 Set 3 Course A

Students who take the 10th Hindi exam can use their answer keys to anticipate their final results. The CBSE Class 10 Answer Key Hindi 2024 is available on this page for students to use. Adda247 Professionals are constantly revising the CBSE class 10 Hindi Test questions and answers. Once the exam is completed, you can use the CBSE Class 10 Hindi Answer Key 2024 to ensure that all of the correct answers are provided here.

1. निर्देशानुसार ‘रचना के आधार पर बाक्य भेद’ पर आधारित पाँच बहुविकल्पी प्रश्नों में से किन्हीं चार प्रश्नों के सही उत्तर वाले विकल्प चुनकर लिखिए:

(i) ‘वे जब भी दिल्ली आते मुझसे जरूर मिलते।’ इस वाक्य का सरल वाक्य है – –

(A) दिल्ली आने पर वह मुझसे जरूर मिलते। (B) वे दिल्ली आते और मुझसे भी जरूर मिलते। (C) वे मुझसे मिलते तथा दिल्ली अवश्य ही आते। (D) जब कभी वह दिल्ली आते, मुझसे अवश्य मिलते ।

Answer:(A) दिल्ली आने पर वह मुझसे जरूर मिलते।

(ii) ‘कस्बे में एक बड़ा बाजार और एक नगरपालिका भी थी। इस बाक्य का संयुक्त वाक्य होगा – (A) कस्बे में एक बड़े बाजार के साथ एक नगरपालिका भी थी। (B) क्योंकि कस्बे में एक बड़ा बाजार तो था नहीं इसलिए साथ में एक नगरपालिका थी। (C) कस्बे में एक बड़ा बाजार और एक नगरपालिका दोनों साथ-साथ थे। (D) कस्बे में एक बड़ा बाजार था और एक नगरपालिका भी थी।

Answer:(C) कस्बे में एक बड़ा बाजार और एक नगरपालिका दोनों साथ-साथ थे।

(iii) ‘आग व सुई-धागे का आविष्कार कराने बाली योग्यता संस्कृति है।’ इस वाक्य का मिश्र वाक्य है

(A) संस्कृति योग्यता भी है और आग व सुई-धागे का आविष्कार भी कराती है। (B) योग्यता ही आग व सुई-धागे का आविष्कार कराती है और यह संस्कृति है। (C) जो योग्यता आग व सुई-धागे का आविष्कार कराती है वह संस्कृति है। (D) आग व सुई-धागे का आविष्कार करने बाली योग्यता ही संस्कृति है।

Answer: (C) जो योग्यता आग व सुई-धागे का आविष्कार कराती है वह संस्कृति है।

(iv) निम्नलिखित वाक्यों में से संयुक्त वाक्य पहचान कर नीचे दिए गए विकल्पों में से सर्वाधिक उपयुक्त उत्तर वाला विकल्प चुरकर लिखिए: 1. फ़ादर को याद करना एक उदास शांत संगीत को सुनने जैसा है। 2. वे प्रतिकार में शोर-शराबा नहीं करते बल्कि प्रतिपक्ष की रक्षा करते हैं। हम समाज और इतिहास में भी ऐसे अनेक प्रसंगों को देख सकते हैं। 4. उन्होंने इलाहाबाद और लखनऊ से प्रकाशित ‘अमृत प्रभात’ में भी नौकरी की।

(A) केवल 2 सही (B) केवल 3 सही (C) 2 और 3 सही (D) 1 और 4 सही

Answer: (C) 2 और 3 सही

v) स्तंभ-1 को स्तंभ-2 से सुमेलित कीजिए और सही विकल्प का चयन कर लिखिए:

(A) (1)-(11); (2)-(1); (3)-(111) (B) (1)-(11): (2)-(111); (3)-(1) (C) (1)-(III); (2)-(1); (3)-(II) (Q) (1)-(111); (2)-(II); (3)-(1)

Answer: (C) (1)-(III); (2)-(1); (3)-(II)

2. निर्देशानुसार ‘पद परिचय’ पर आधारित पाँच बहुविकल्पी प्रश्नों में से किन्हीं चार प्रश्नों के सही उत्तर बाले विकल्प चुनकर लिखिए : 4×1

(i) दुलारा अपन कठार स्वभाव के लिए जानी जाती है।’ में रेखांकित पद का परिचय है- (A) व्यक्तिवाचक संज्ञा, एकवचन, स्त्रीलिंग, संप्रदान कारक B) जातिवाचक संज्ञा, एकवचन, स्त्रीलिंग, संप्रदान कारक ( (C) व्यक्तिवाचक संज्ञा, एकवचन, स्त्रीलिंग, कर्ता कारक (D) जातिवाचक संज्ञा, एकवचन, स्त्रीलिंग, कर्ता कारक

Answer:(C) व्यक्तिवाचक संज्ञा, एकवचन, स्त्रीलिंग, कर्ता कारक

(ii) ‘उन्होंने कम से कम अपनी बेटी को तो अच्छी शिक्षा दी।’ में रेखांकित पद का परिचय है – (A) सार्वनामिक विशेषण, एकवचन, स्त्रीलिंग, बेटी विशेष्य (B) जार्वनामिक विशेषण, एकवचन, स्त्रीलिंग, बेटी विशेषण (C)पुरुषवाचक सर्वनाम, एकवचन, स्त्रीलिंग, कर्म कारक (D) पुरुषवाचक सर्वनाम, एकवचन, स्त्रीलिंग, कर्ता कारक

Answer: (C)पुरुषवाचक सर्वनाम, एकवचन, स्त्रीलिंग, कर्म कारक

(iii) ‘अगस्त में हमारे विद्यालय का नया सत्र प्रारंभ हो गया।’ में रेखांकित पद का परिचय है – (A) रीतिवाचक क्रियाविशेषण, ‘प्रारंभ हो गया’ क्रिया की विशेषता (B) कालवाचक क्रियाविशेषण, ‘प्रारंभ हो गया’ क्रिया की विशेषता (C) स्थानवाचक क्रियाविशेषण, ‘प्रारंभ हो गया’ क्रिया की विशेषता (D) परिमाणवाचक क्रियाविशेषण, प्रारंभ हो गया क्रिया की विशेषता

Answer: (B) कालवाचक क्रियाविशेषण, ‘प्रारंभ हो गया’ क्रिया की विशेषता

(iv) ‘खाली समय का उपयोग में पुस्तकें पढ़ने में करती हूँ।’ में रेखांकित पद का परिचय है – (A) अन्यपुरुष सर्वनाम, एकवचन, स्त्रीलिंग, कर्ता कारक (B) उत्तमपुरुष सर्वनाम, एकवचन, स्त्रीलिंग, कर्ता कारक (C) सार्वनामिक विशेषण, एकवचन, स्त्रीलिंग, कर्ता कराक (D) मध्यमपुरुष सर्वनाम, एकवचन, स्त्रीलिंग, कर्ता कारण

Answer: (C) सार्वनामिक विशेषण, एकवचन, स्त्रीलिंग, कर्ता कराक (v) निम्नलिखित वाक्यों में से किस वाक्य में रीतिवाचक क्रियाविशेषण का प्रयोग नहीं हुआ है ?

(A) दुनिया सब कुछ होम कर देने वालों पर भी हँसती है। (B) वे उसके ठीक सामने जाकर सावधान की मुद्रा में खड़े हो गए। (C) बह सिर झुकाकर धोती के सिरे से आँखें पोंछने लगा। (D) हालदार साहब तेज-तेज कदमों से मूर्ति की तरफ लपके।

Answer: (A) दुनिया सब कुछ होम कर देने वालों पर भी हँसती है।

CBSE Class 10 Hindi Answer Key 2024 Out For Course A, B Set 1,2,3_50.1

3. निर्देशानुसार ‘बाच्य’ पर आधारित पाँच बहुविकल्पी प्रश्नों में से किन्हीं चार प्रश्नों के सही उत्तर वाले विकल्प छाँटकर लिखिए: 4×1=4

(1) ‘लेखक ने सरकारी नौकरी से त्यागपत्र दे दिया।’ इस वाक्य का वाच्य पहचानकर लिखिए: (A) कर्तावाच्य (B) कर्मवाच्य (C) भाववाच्य (D) कर्तृवाच्य

Answer: (D) कर्तृवाच्य (ii) निम्नलिखित वाक्यों में भाववाच्य का उदाहरण वाक्य नहीं है: (A) इस मोर से उड़ा नहीं जाता। (C) दादाजी से पैदल चला नहीं जाता। (B) मोहित बहुत सुरीला गा पाता है। (D) चलो, अब यहाँ से चला जाए।

Answer: (B) मोहित बहुत सुरीला गा पाता है। (iii) ‘द्विवेदी जी द्वारा स्त्रियों को शिक्षा देने की बकालत की गई। यह वाक्य किस वाच्य का उदाहरण है ? (A) कर्मवाच्य (C) भाववाच्य (B) क्रियावाच्य (D) कर्तृवाच्य

Answer: (A) कर्मवाच्य

(iv) निम्नलिखित वाक्यों में ‘कर्मवाच्य’ पहचानकर नीचे दिए गए विकल्पों में से सर्वाधिक उपयुक्त उत्तर बाला विकल्प चुनकर लिखिए : 1. कमलेश्वर ने आत्मकथा, यात्रा-वृत्तांत और संस्मरण भी लिखे हैं।

2. मधु कांकरिया ने कोलकाता विश्वविद्यालय से अर्थशास्त्र में एम.ए. किया। 3. उनके द्वारा युवावर्ग की समस्याओं को केंद्र में रखा गया। 4. रुद्र जी दुवारा अध्यापन और संपादन दोनों कार्य किया गया । (A) 1 और 2 (B) 2 और 3 (C) 3 और 4 (D) 1, 3 और 4

Answer: (C) 3 और 4

(v) स्तंभ-1 को स्तंभ-2 से सुमेलित कीजिए और सही विकल्प का चयन कीजिए:

(A) (1)-(II); (2)-(III); (3)-(1) (B) (1)-(III); (2)-(II); (3)-(1) (C) (1)-(II); (2)-(I); (3)-(III)

(D) (1)-(I); (2)-(II); (3)-(III)

Answer: (A) (1)-(II); (2)-(III); (3)-(1)

4. निर्देशानुसार ‘अलंकार’ पर आधारित पाँच बहुविकल्पी प्रश्नों में से किन्हीं चार प्रश्नों के सही उत्तर चुनकर लिखिए : 4×1=4

(i) ‘अंबर पनघट में डुबो रही, तारा घट उषा नागरी ।’ – इस पंक्ति में कौन-सा अलंकार प्रयुक्त हुआ है ? (A) यमक (B) मानवीकरण (C) श्लेष (D) उत्प्रेक्षा

Answer:(B) मानवीकरण

(ii) “जे रहीम गति दीप की, कुल कपूत गति सोय । बारे उजियारो करै, बड़े अंधेरो होय ।।” – इन काव्य-पंक्तियों में प्रयुक्त अलंकार है- (A) मानवीकरण (C) स्लेष (B) उत्प्रेक्षा (D) यमक

Answer:(B) उत्प्रेक्षा

(iii) निम्नलिखित काव्य-पंक्तियों में से कौन सी काव्य-पंक्ति मानवीकरण अलंकार का उदाहरण है? (A) है टूट पड़ा भू पर अंबर (B) पुरखनि पात रहत जल भीतर, ता रस देह न दागी (C) के एग में पनही न हती, कह लै गजराजहु ठाढ़े महावत । (D) फूटे हैं आमों में बौर, भौर वन-वन टूटे हैं।

Answer: (D) फूटे हैं आमों में बौर, भौर वन-वन टूटे हैं।

(iv) ‘रागा की पुतली फिरी नहीं, तब तक चेतक मुड़ जाता था। इस काव्य-पंक्ति में प्रयुक्त अलंकार है- (A) अतिशयोक्ति (C) स्लेष (B) उत्प्रेक्षा (D) मानवीकरण

Answer:(A) अतिशयोक्ति

(v) ‘सतसइया के दोहरे ज्यों नाविक के तीर। देखन में छोटे लगै, घाव करें गंभीर ।।’ – इस काव्य-पंक्ति में प्रयुक्त अलंकार है- (A) यमक (B) श्लेष (C) उत्प्रेक्षा (D) मानवीकरण

Answer: (C) उत्प्रेक्षा

(i) पानवाला आँखों ही आँखों क्यों हँसा ? (A) ऑरिजिनल चश्मे की बात पर, यह उसकी व्यंग्यात्मक हँसी थी । (B) वह हालदार साहब पर अपनी हँसी जाहिर नहीं होने देना चाहता था। (C) हालदार साहब उसको हँसते देखकर बुरा भी मान सकते थे। (D) आँखों ही आँखों हँसना पानवाले की बहुत पुरानी आदत थी।

Answer: (A) ऑरिजिनल चश्मे की बात पर, यह उसकी व्यंग्यात्मक हँसी थी ।

(ii) ‘मास्टर बनाना भूल गया।’ यहाँ मास्टर के संदर्भ में अनुपयुक्त विकल्प है – (A) मूर्तिकार (B) मोतीलाल (C) ड्रॉइंग टीचर (D) कैप्टन

Answer: (D) कैप्टन

(ii) ग्राहक नेताजी की मूर्ति पर लगा चश्मे का फ्रेम क्यों ले लेते थे ?

(A) नेताजी के प्रति अपना सम्मान व्यक्त करने के लिए (B) ग्राहक नेताजी के समान दिखना चाहते थे। (C) नेताजी पर लगे होने के कारण वह उन्हें पसंद आ जाता था। (D) कैप्टन अपने फ्रेमों को उसी मूर्ति पर लगा देता था।

Answer: (C) नेताजी पर लगे होने के कारण वह उन्हें पसंद आ जाता था।

(iv) ‘अब हालदार साहब को बात कुछ-कुछ समझ में आई। इस पंक्ति के संदर्भ में लिखिए कि हालदार साहब क्या समझ गए ? (A) मूर्ति के चश्मे के बार-बार बदले जाने का कारण। (B) मूर्ति की आँखों पर चश्मा न होने का कारण। (C) ग्राहकों द्वारा चश्मा न खरीदे जाने का कारण । (D) पानवाले और कैप्टन की परस्पर दोस्ती का कारण।

Answer: (A) मूर्ति के चश्मे के बार-बार बदले जाने का कारण।

(v) ‘कैप्टन मूर्ति से चश्मे का फ्रेम उतारते हुए उनसे क्षमा भी मांगता होगा’ लेखक के इस अनुमान का क्या कारण रहा होगा ?

(A) नेताजी के प्रति कैप्टन का अति विश्वास से भरा व्यवहार । (B) नेताजी के प्रति कैप्टन का दिखावे से भरा आचरण । (C) कैप्टन को यह लगना कि चश्मे के बिना नेताजी तकलीफ में हैं। (D) कैप्टन की सोच के बारे में लेखक का अनुमान सर्वथा गलत होना ।

Answer: (A) नेताजी के प्रति कैप्टन का अति विश्वास से भरा व्यवहार ।

10. गद्य पाठों के आधार पर निम्नलिखित दो बहुविकल्पी प्रश्नों के सर्वाधिक उपयुक्त विकल्प चुनकर लिखिए : 2×1=2

(1) ‘एक कहानी यह भी’ पाठ में लेखिका की दृष्टि में उनकी माँ का व्यक्तित्व आदर्श रूप नहीं था क्योंकि (A) उनकी माँ अपने बच्चों से भेदभाव करती थीं। (B) उनकी माँ बहुत अधिक पढ़ी-लिखी नहीं थीं। (C) उन्हें उनका व्यक्तित्व काफ़ी दबा दबा सा लगता था। (D) उनकी माँ बहुत ही आक्रामक स्वभाव की थीं।

Answer: (ii) ‘संस्कृति’ पाठ में सुसंस्कृत व्यक्ति में किस भाव की प्रधानता मानी गई है ? (A) लोककल्याण की भावना (C) बंधुकल्याण की भावना (B) स्वकल्याण की भावना (D) भाषाकल्याण की भावना

CBSE Class 10 Hindi A Answer Key 2024 Set 1

1. निम्नलिखित गद्यांश को ध्यानपूर्वक पढ़कर उस पर आधारित दिए गए प्रश्नों के सर्वाधिक उपयुक्त उत्तर वाले विकल्प चुनकर लिखिए।

भारत एक विशाल देश है। यहाँ के विभिन्न राज्यों की अपनी क्षेत्रीय भाषाएँ हैं। स्वतंत्रता के पश्चात से मातृभाषा को प्रोत्साहित करने की बातें चर्चा में रही हैं। परंतु इनके विकास के लिए कोई ठोस उपाय नहीं किए गए। इसके कारण प्रत्येक क्षेत्र में विदेशी भाषा अंग्रेजी का वर्चस्व स्थापित हो गया। नेल्सन मंडेला ने कहा था कि किसी भी व्यक्ति के सोचने की प्रक्रिया अपनी मातृभाषा में होती है। अगर किसी व्यक्ति से उसकी मातृभाषा में बात करें तो वह बात दिल तक पहुँचती है। यह सर्वविदित है कि मातृभाषा में शिक्षा प्राप्त करना अत्यंत सहज एवं सुगम होता है। अपनी मातृभाषा में विद्यार्थी किसी भी विषय को सरलता से समझ लेता है जबकि अन्य भाषाओं में उसे कठिनाई का सामना करना पड़ता है। विश्वभर के शिक्षाविदों ने मातृभाषा में शिक्षा प्रदान किए जाने को महत्त्व दिया है। विश्व स्वास्थ्य संगठन की एक रिपोर्ट के अनुसार अपनी मातृभाषा में चिकित्सा की पढ़ाई करवाने वाले देशों में चिकित्सा एवं स्वास्थ्य व्यवस्था की स्थिति अन्य देशों की तुलना में अच्छी है। चीन, रूस, जर्मनी, फ्रांस और जापान सहित अनेक देश अपनी मातृभाषा में शिक्षा प्रदान कर रहे हैं। सर्वविदित है कि ये देश लगभग प्रत्येक क्षेत्र में अग्रणी हैं। इन देशों ने अपनी मातृभाषा में शिक्षा प्रदान करके ही उन्नति प्राप्त की है। यदि स्वतंत्रता के पश्चात भारत में भी मातृभाषा में चिकित्सा एवं तकनीकी शिक्षा प्रदान की जाती तो हम आज विश्व में और अधिक बेहतर स्थिति में होते। वर्तमान में इस दिशा में ठोस और क्रांतिकारी कदम उठाए जाने की आवश्यकता है।

(i) किसी भी देश के आधारभूत विकास के लिए आवश्यक है : (A) तकनीकी शिक्षा का विस्तार होना (B) चिकित्सीय शिक्षा का विस्तार होना (C) किसी भी भाषा में शिक्षा देना (D) मातृभाषा में शिक्षा का विस्तार होना Answer: (D) मातृभाषा में शिक्षा का विस्तार होना

(ii) स्वास्थ्य और चिकित्सा की दृष्टि से कौन-से देश अच्छी स्थिति में हैं? (A) मातृभाषा में चिकित्सीय शिक्षा देने वाले देश (B) अपनी राष्ट्रभाषा को मातृभाषा बनाने वाले देश (C) राष्ट्रभाषा और मातृभाषा को समान मानने वाले देश (D) अंग्रेजी भाषा से दूरी बनाने वाले देश Answer:(A) मातृभाषा में चिकित्सीय शिक्षा देने वाले देश

(iii) भारत में क्षेत्रीय भाषाओं के अपेक्षाकृत कम विकसित होने के क्या कारण हैं? (A) हिंदी भाषा का वर्चस्व (B). अंग्रेजी भाषा का वर्चस्व (C) उपयुक्त प्रयासों का अभाव (D) स्थानीय इच्छाशक्ति का अभाव Answer: (B). अंग्रेजी भाषा का वर्चस्व

(iv) ‘मातृभाषा में शिक्षा प्राप्त करना आसान होता है।’ इस कथन के पक्ष में निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा /कौन-से तर्क सही है/हैं? 1 मातृभाषा में प्राप्त ज्ञान को समझना सरल है। 2. मातृभाषा में प्राप्त ज्ञान को समझना जटिल है। 3. मातृभाषा अन्य भाषाओं से सरल स्वरूप होती है। 4. मातृभाषा और दूसरी भाषाओं में कोई अंतर नहीं है।

विकल्प : (A) 1 सही है। (B) 3 सही है। (C) 1 और 2 सही हैं। (D) 1 और 4 सही है। Answer: (A) 1 सही है।

(1) कथन और कारण को पढ़कर उपयुक्त विकल्प चुनकर लिखिए: कथन- भारत में शिक्षा के माध्यम में बदलाव वर्तमान की आवश्यकता है। कारण – शिक्षा के माध्यम के प्रति दृष्टिकोण समाज में क्रांतिकारी परिवर्तन ला सकता है। (A) कथन गलत है, किंतु कारण सही है।। (B) कथन और कारण दोनों ही गलत हैं। (C) कथन सही है और कारण, कथन की सही व्याख्या है। (D) कथन सही है किंतु कारण, कथन की सही व्याख्या नहीं है। Answer: (C) कथन सही है और कारण, कथन की सही व्याख्या है।

Questions 2.

(i) ‘अपने-आप से’ लड़ने का क्या अभिप्राय है? (A) अपने भीतर उठे अंतद्वंद्व से लड़ना (B) अपने भीतर की कमजोरियों से लड़ना (C) अपनी शारीरिक कमजोरियों से लड़ना (D) अपनी मानसिक व्याधियों से लड़ना

Answer: (A) अपने भीतर उठे अंतद्वंद्व से लड़ना

(II)जो नत हुआ वह मृत हुआ’ क्यों कहा गया (A) झुकना पमंड का परिचायक है। (B) शुकना विनम्रता का परिचायक है। (C) झुकने वाला मृतक के समान है। (D) स्वाभिमान रहित जीवन मृतक के समान है।

Answer:(C) झुकने वाला मृतक के समान है।

(iii) काव्यांश का संदेश है। (A) हर प्रकार की परिस्थिति से समझीता कर स्वयं को ढालने का। (B) जीत की संभावना बाले मार्ग पर ही आगे बढ़ने का। (C) केसी भी कठिन परिस्थिति हो उससे हार न मानने का। (D) हार की संभावना होने पर नबौन लक्ष्य के निर्माण का।

Answer:(C) केसी भी कठिन परिस्थिति हो उससे हार न मानने का।

(iv) ‘काँटे’ और ‘कलियाँ” किसके प्रतीक हैं? (A) सुख और दुख के। (B) दुख और मुख के। (C) समृद्धि और उत्कर्ष के। (D) निर्माण और पठन के।

Answer:(B) दुख और मुख के।

(v) कथन और कारण पर विचार करते हुए सही विकल्प चुनकर लिखिए । कथन – मानव मात्र का जीवन संघर्षपूर्ण है। कारण मानव मात्र को अपने जीवन की सम-विषम हर तरह की परिस्थितियों का डटकर सामना करना चाहिए। (A) कथन गलत है और कारण सही है। (B) कथन और कारण दोनों ही गलत हैं। (C) कथन सही है और कारण, कथन की सही व्याख्या है। (D) कथन और कारण दोनों सही हैं लेकिन कारण कथन की सही व्याख्या नहीं करता है।

Answer: (D) कथन और कारण दोनों सही हैं लेकिन कारण कथन की सही व्याख्या नहीं करता है।

Hindi Answer Key 2024 Class 10 Set 2 Course B

Check out the CBSE Class 10 Hindi Question  Paper 2024 given below.

CBSE Class 10 Hindi B Answer Key 2024 (SET 2)

1. निम्नलिखित गद्यांश को ध्यानपूर्वक पढ़कर उस पर आधारित दिए गए प्रश्नों के लिए सर्वाधिक उपयुक्त उत्तर वाले विकल्प चुनकर लिखिए : गरमियों के दिन ‘छुट्टी और यात्रा’ पर जाने के दिन होते हैं। ‘छुट्टी पर जाने’ का यह अनुराग काफ़ी आधुनिक है, क्योंकि लोग ‘कर्मोन्मत्त’ बन गए हैं और वे जो कुछ भी करते हैं या नहीं करते हैं, वह उनके लिए तनाव पैदा करता है। पहले ‘छुट्टी’ शब्द मूल रूप से धार्मिक दिनों के लिए इस्तेमाल होता था; आजकल इसका मतलब सामान्य दिनों के विपरीत आराम या विश्राम का कोई विशेष दिन है। लेकिन असली सवाल है कि छुट्टी पर जाने से पहले क्या आपका मन और शरीर नई जगह का आनंद लेने की स्थिति में है? यात्रा की सारी तैयारी बाहरी होती है, लोग विश्राम की भाषा पूरी तरह भूल चुके हैं। जब आप कुछ नहीं करते, तो यह मत सोचना कि समय बर्बाद हो रहा है। कुछ न करने के दौरान आपकी ऊर्जा खुद को स्वस्थ करती है। सतत काम करते रहने का जुनून ही आपको छुट्टी का आनंद नहीं लेने देता। आप जहाँ हैं, वहाँ मौजूद रहना सीखें, इसका अर्थ है अभी और यहीं होना । बाहरी दुनिया के बिना जीवित रहना सीखें। इसका स्पष्ट मतलब है, अपने साथ रहना शुरू करें, खुद को जानना सीखें । छुट्टी का मतलब यह कदापि नहीं कि आप सिर्फ कामकाज से दूरी बनाएँ, बल्कि अपने मन, उसके दबावों और उलझनों से भी दूरी बनाइए।

i) ‘छुट्टी पर जाने का यह अनुराग काफ़ी आधुनिक है’ पंक्ति का आशय है. (A) प्राचीन समय में लोग छुट्टियों का आनंद घर पर ही लेते थे। (B) छुट्टियों में घर से बाहर जाने का प्रचलन वर्तमान समय की देन है। (C) वर्तमान समय में छुट्टियों के प्रति प्रेम बढ़ा है। (D) कार्यस्थलों/शिक्षा केन्द्रों में छुट्टी पर जाने का प्रचलन बढ़ा है।

Answer: (C) वर्तमान समय में छुट्टियों के प्रति प्रेम बढ़ा है।

(ii) ‘कर्मोन्मत्त’ शब्द का अर्थ है – (A) कार्य से विमुख (B) कार्य करने का आदी (C) कार्य न करने का आदी (D) आराम करने का आदी

Answer:(B) कार्य करने का आदी

(iii) यात्रा पर निकलने से पहले क्या आवश्यक है ? (A) गंतव्य स्थल की जानकारी हासिल करना (B) गंतव्य स्थल की टिकट बुक कराना (C) आवश्यक सामान को बैग में डालना (D) तन और मन को आनंद लेने के लिए तैयार करना

Answer:(D) तन और मन को आनंद लेने के लिए तैयार करना

(iv) गद्यांश के अनुसार कुछ न करने से भी समय बर्बाद नहीं होता, क्यों ? (A) शरीर की ऊर्जा नष्ट नहीं होती । (B) शरीर की ऊर्जा खुद को स्वस्थ करती है। (C) हम आत्मावलोकन करते हैं। (D) तन और मन को विश्राम मिलता है।

Answer:(B) शरीर की ऊर्जा खुद को स्वस्थ करती है।

(v) ‘जहाँ हैं, वहाँ मौजूद रहना’ का अभिप्राय है – (A) निर्धारित स्थल पर उपस्थित रहना । (B) बिना हिले-डुले एक स्थान पर बने रहना । (C) एक ही स्थान पर लंबे समय तक बने रहना । (D) शारीरिक उपस्थिति के साथ मानसिक उपस्थिति का होना ।

Answer:(D) शारीरिक उपस्थिति के साथ मानसिक उपस्थिति का होना ।

Question 2: (i) ‘जीवन के प्रत्येक क्षेत्र में पथ-निर्देश के लिए गांधीजी के द्वारा सिखाए उसूलों का आश्रय लेना होगा।’ – पंत जी द्वारा ऐसा क्यों कहा गया ? (A) गांधीजी विश्व प्रसिद्ध व्यक्ति थे । (B) गांधीजी आज हमारे बीच जीवित नहीं हैं। (C) गांधीजी की शिक्षाओं से ही विश्व में शांति संभव है। (D) गांधीजी ने देश को स्वतंत्रता प्राप्ति के लिए मार्ग प्रशस्त किया ।

Answer: (D) गांधीजी ने देश को स्वतंत्रता प्राप्ति के लिए मार्ग प्रशस्त किया ।

(ii) गांधीजी द्वारा स्वतंत्रता प्राप्ति के लिए किन जीवन-मूल्यों को महत्त्व दिया ? (A) सत्य और अहिंसा (C) संयम और उदारता (B) त्याग और बलिदान (D) संघर्ष और वीरता

Answer: (A) सत्य और अहिंसा

(iii) संदर्भ के अनुसार गद्यांश में ‘प्रभृति’ शब्द का सटीक अर्थ हो सकता है – (A) बड़े (C) विद्वान (B) बुद्धिमान (D) आदि/इत्यादि

Answer: (C) विद्वान (iv) सत्य और अहिंसा के सिद्धांतों को व्यापक और व्यावहारिक रूप दिया – (A) बुद्ध ने (B) गांधी ने (C) महावीर ने (D) पंत ने

Answer: (B) गांधी ने

(v) गद्यांश के संदर्भ में निम्नलिखित कथनों में से कौन-सा/कौन-से कथन सही है/हैं, सही- उत्तर के लिए उचित विकल्प चुनकर लिखिए : (i) सत्य और अहिंसा के मार्ग पर चलकर ही सरकार लोकप्रियता प्राप्त कर सकती है। (ii) युद्ध जन-धन की क्षति का कारक है। (iii) अहिंसा कायर की विवशता का अस्त्र है। विकल्प : (A) केवल कथन (i) सही है। (C) कथन (ii) और (iii) सही हैं। (B) कथन (i) और (ii) सही हैं। (D) कथन (i), (ii) और (iii) सही हैं।

Answer: (C) कथन (ii) और (iii) सही हैं।

Question 3: 3. निर्देशानुसार ‘पदबंध’ पर आधारित पाँच बहुविकल्पी प्रश्नों में से किन्हीं चार प्रश्नों के सही उत्तर वाले विकल्प चुनकर लिखिए :

(i) तीन बजे से ही मैदान में हज़ारों आदमियों की भीड़ जमा होने लगी। रेखांकित पदबंध का भेद है- (A) संज्ञा पदबंध (B) सर्वनाम पदबंध (C) विशेषण पदबंध (D) क्रिया पदबंध

Answer: (A) संज्ञा पदबंध (ii) बड़े बाज़ार के प्रायः सभी मकानों पर राष्ट्रीय झंडा फहरा रहा था। रेखांकित पदबंध का भेद है – (A) सर्वनाम पदबंध (B) विशेषण पदबंध (C) क्रिया पदबंध (D) क्रिया-विशेषण पदबंध

Answer: (C) क्रिया पदबंध (iii) निम्नलिखित में से क्रिया-विशेषण पदबंध का उदाहरण छाँटकर लिखिए : (A) पक्षियों की सायंकालीन चहचहाहटें शनैः शनैः क्षीण होने को थी। (B) पक्षियों की सायंकालीन चहचहाहटें शनैः शनैः क्षीण होने को थी। (C) पक्षियों की सायंकालीन चहचहाहटें शनैः शनैः क्षीण होने को थी। (D) पक्षियों की सायंकालीन चहचहाहटें शनैः शनैः क्षीण होने को थी ।

Answer: (C) पक्षियों की सायंकालीन चहचहाहटें शनैः शनैः क्षीण होने को थी।

(iv) ‘तताँरा एक नेक और मददगार व्यक्ति था ।’ – इस वाक्य में विशेषण पदबंध होगा – (A) तताँरा एक नेक (B), नेक और मददगार व्यक्ति (C) एक नेक और मददगार (D) मददगार व्यक्ति था

Answer: (C) एक नेक और मददगार (v) ‘उसके चर्चित साहसिक कारनामों का कारण लोग तलवार में अद्भुत शक्ति का होना मानते थे ।’ इस वाक्य में संज्ञा पदबंध का उदाहरण है – (A) चर्चित साहसिक (B). कारनामों का कारण (C) अद्भुत शक्ति का होना (D) चर्चित साहसिक कारनामों

Answer: (A) चर्चित साहसिक

CBSE Class 10 Hindi Question Paper with Answer Key PDF

Applicants can determine their expected outcomes by downloading Class 10 Hindi Question Papers and evaluating the Class 10 Hindi Answer Key. We share the CBSE Class 10 Hindi Question Papers 2024 PDF for all sets below.

Class 10 Hindi Paper Analysis 2024

Students can examine the CBSE Class 10 Hindi Exam Analysis 2024 after the examination is completed. We analyze the question paper in the CBSE Class 10 Hindi Paper Analysis 2024 based on its difficulty level and out-of-syllabus questions.

CBSE Class 10 Hindi Exam  Students Reviews

we talked to the test takers, outside the exam center about the Hindi exam, We share the CBSE class 10 Hindi exam analysis given bey the students below:

  • As per the student’s reaction, the Hindi A paper was easy to moderate level.
  • Students find MCQs are easy but the overall paper was lengthy.
  • There were no questions concerning deleted chapters or subjects.
  • The only challenge they had was completing the paper on time. Section B of the CBSE Hindi paper took a long time since pupils had to provide descriptive answers.
  • The unseen passages and poetry in Hindi A were simple. Nonetheless, the literature section was easy to moderate and questions were asked from NCERT directly.
  • The majority of students stated that the Hindi Course B paper was quite lengthy, although it was a moderate paper. The segment on literary and writing skills was a little challenging. Students rated Part A as straightforward to moderate on average, although Section B was a little more difficult.

CBSE Class 10 Hindi Paper 2024: Expert Reviews

Let’s check out what subject experts say about the CBSE Class 10 Hindi Question paper.

According to experts, “The CBSE Hindi Class 10 Hindi papers for Course A and Course B were simple and manageable within the time frame.” If students felt that the paper was too long, it could be due to a lack of writing experience. The thorough section was a little challenging, but not impossible to solve. Students would not be concerned about how they performed on this exam. They should anticipate and prepare for the next exam in the raw.”

CBSE Class 10 Hindi Answer Key 2024 Out For Course A, B Set 1,2,3_60.1

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Where can I get Hindi Class 10 Answer Key 2024?

On this page, you will get the Class 10 Hindi Answer Key 2024, match your responses with the answer key, and calculate your marks.

What is the exam pattern of CBSE Class 10 Hindi Examination?

Hindi for CBSE Class 10 The question paper for Exam A will include questions of a subjective nature. The exam for Hindi Course A will have 80 marks and 17 questions, while the exam for Hindi Course B will have 80 marks and 18 questions.

When CBSE Class 10 Hindi exam takes place?

The Central Board of Secondary Education conducted the Class 10 Information Technology exam on 21 February 2024

Will CBSE release the official Hindi Class 10 Answer Key 2024?

The Central Board of Secondary Education has not been informed yet about the official  Class 10 Hindi Answer Key 2024. Whenever CBSE uploads Class 10 hindi Answer Key on its official website we will update the same here. 

UP Board Class 12 Biology Model Paper 2024 with Solutions

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CBSE Class 10 Hindi Answer Key 2024 Out For Course A, B Set 1,2,3_70.1

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CBSE Class 10 Hindi Answer Key 2024 Out For Course A, B Set 1,2,3_250.1

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CBSE Board Exams 2024: Guidelines issued for Class 10 Hindi-A, Hindi-B exams; Check here

CBSE Board Exams 2024: Guidelines issued for Class 10 Hindi-A, Hindi-B exams; Check here

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